Colin is a branch manager for a large freight company. He has noticed low morale lately, perhaps because of the cramped quarters
1 answer:
You might be interested in
Answer:
Raw Material $191,000
Direct labor $300,000
Actual manufacturing overhead $170,000
Actual selling and administrative expenses $115,000
The company applies manufacturing overhead at the rate of 60 percent of direct-labor cost.
1.
Prime Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor
Prime Cost = $191,000 + $300,000 = 491,000
2.
Cost of goods manufactured $
Direct material $191,000
Add: Direct Labor $300,000
Add: Manufacturing overhead <u>$170,000</u>
Manufacturing cost <u>$661,000</u>
3.
Manufacturing cost $661,000
Add: Work in process inventory at January 1 $235,000
Less: Work in process inventory at January 31 <u>$251,000</u>
Cost of Goods Manufactured <u>$645,000</u>
4.
Cost of Goods Manufactured $645,000
Add: Finished Good inventory at January 1 $125,000
Less: Finished Good inventory at January 31 <u>$117,000</u>
Cost of Goods Sold <u>$653,000</u>
5.
Manufacturing overhead Account Balance
Actual overhead = $175,000
Manufacturing overhead = $180,000 (300,000 x 60% )
Over applied manufacturing overhead = $180,000 - $175,000
Over applied manufacturing overhead = $5,000
* Data was missing for the calculations, complete question is attached with this answer, Please find that.
Answer:
WACC 10.38305%
Explanation:
<em><u>First we solve for the source of financing:</u></em>
Expansion: 5,900,000
60% Equity: 3,540,000
Retained Earnins 2,000,000
then 1,540,000 will be common equity
40% debt: 2,360,000 It can raise up to 3,000,000 so it will be sufficient
D 2,360
E 1,540
RE 2000
V 5,900
Now we can solve for Weighted average cost of capital
Ke 0.15
Equity weight 0.261016949 (1,540,000 / 5,900,000)
Kre 0.12
RE Weight 0,338983 (2,000,000 / 5,900,000)
Kd 0.1
Debt Weight 0.4 ( 2,360,000 / 5,900,000)
t 0.4
WACC 10.38305%