Answer: Option (C) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
In Dept. A,
Direct labor cost = $60,000
Manufacturing overhead = $90,000
Direct labor-hours = 6,000
Machine-hours = 2,000
In Dept. B,
Direct labor cost = $40,000
Manufacturing overhead = $45,000
Direct labor-hours = 9,000
Machine-hours = 15,000
Predetermined overhead rates in Dept. A = 
= 
= 150%
In dept. B = 
= 
= $3
Answer:
The correct answer is C: $4300
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
They will invest an equal amount each month for 5 years.
This account will earn 6% per year(0.5% per month)and will have $300,000 at the end of the 5-year term
We need to use the following formula:
final value= {A[(1+i)^n-1]}/r
A= cuota
i= monthly interest
n= 60 months
Isolating A:
A= (FV*i)/[(1+i)^n-1]
A= (300000*0.005)/[(1.005^60)-1]
A= 1500/0.34885= 4300
Answer:
a. are efficient, but long lines are inefficient
Explanation:
A rationing mechanism is a system in which who gets how many goods during a shortage is carefully chosen, in order to do these long lines are used even though they are inefficient.
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Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below;
But before that the depreciation expense per year is
Depreciation per year = (Cost - Residual value) ÷ Useful life
= ($38,080 - $2,800) ÷ 6 years
= $5,880
1.Net book value as on disposal date is
= $38,080 - ($5,880 × 3)
= $20,440
2.
We know that
Gain on sales = (Sales - Book value)
Gain = $(20,400 - 20,400) = 0
a. Loss = $13,000 - $20,440 = -$7,440
b. Loss = $10,000 - $20,440 = -$10,440
