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vesna_86 [32]
3 years ago
15

HELP ME 7TH GRADE MATH QUESTION!!!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
kicyunya [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

No function in general can pass through the same Y coordinate 2 times. Which is what happens with y=1.

(Also if you have to find this out on a graph just do the vertical line test. If when you draw a vertical line at any given point, and the graphed line passes throughout that line 2 or more times it isn't a function.)

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Do you like turtles yes or no
Anni [7]

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

Turtles are literally the cutest sea creature ever

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
One side of triangle is 5x-2 another side is 6x+7 and t is the length of third side then what is true about length of t
yuradex [85]

Answer:

t =  \sqrt{ {(5x - 2) {}^{2}  + (6x + 7)}^{2} }

3 0
3 years ago
Newton's Method: Calculus I need assistance and a clear explanation so I can understand. Please be clear
marishachu [46]
Newtons method is a way to approximate the zero of a function. 
It is a recursive method such that the output becomes the new input, the goal is to approach the zero by having the inputs change by a smaller amount each iteration until that change is nearly 0.

First, let me explain where the method comes from.
The formula is really just a manipulation of the slope formula using 2 points; the point tangent to the curve, and the point where the tangent line crosses the x-axis.
If (x,y) is point on curve, then (x*,0) is point on tangent line at x-axis.
m = \frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{y - 0}{x - x^*}

Rearranging for x*:
x^* = x - \frac{y}{dy/dx}

This is the formula for newtons method. y = f(x), dy/dx = f'(x)
Now what happens is (x*,y*) becomes new point on curve with new tangent line with different slope.
This new line will cross x-axis at different point x** and so on until eventually f(x) gets really really close to 0.

Now for the example:
you need to take derivative f'(x) using product rule:
f(x) = x tan(x) - 1 \\  \\ f'(x) = tan(x) + x sec^2 (x)

Then its just a matter of plugging in values for x, and repeating until we get close to a zero.

First plug in x = 1
x_1 = 1 - \frac{(1)(tan 1) - 1}{tan 1 + (1)sec^2 (1)} = 0.888136 \\  \\ x_2 = .888136 - \frac{f(.888136)}{f'(.888136)} = 0.861465 \\  \\ x_3 = .861465 - \frac{f(.861465)}{f'(.861465)} = 0.860335 \\  \\ x_4 = .860335 - \frac{f(.860335)}{f'(.860335)} = 0.860334 \\  \\ x_5 = .860334 - \frac{f(.860334)}{f'(.860334)} = 0.860334

Now we can stop because x5 = x4 to 6 decimals, this means f(x) is very close to 0 and will serve as a good approximation for a solution.

Final Answer:
x = 0.860334
8 0
3 years ago
Someone please help me with number 8.
vichka [17]

Measurement of angle DEF would equal 180 because 71 plus 109 is 180

3 0
3 years ago
Use substitution to solve the system of equations 4x+y=0 2y+x=-7
RSB [31]
Move the 1st equation to get y by itself so it’s now y=-4x so you can substitute that in for the second equation 2y+x=-7 becomes 2(-4x)+x=-7
-8x+x=-7
-7x=-7
x=1

then plug that back in to find y
4(1)+y=0
4+y=0
y=-4

now you have x and y so your coordinate (the answer) is (1, -4) hope this helps!
5 0
3 years ago
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