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Elena-2011 [213]
3 years ago
6

Altima, Inc. finished Job A40 on the last working day of the year. It utilized $ 360 of direct materials and $ 2 comma 030 of di

rect labor. Altima uses a predetermined overhead allocation rate based on direct labor​ costs, which has been fixed at​ 40%. The entry to record the completion of the job should involve a​ ________. A. debit to Finished Goods Inventory $ 3 comma 202 and a credit to Materials Inventory $ 3 comma 202 B. debit to Cost of Goods Sold $ 3 comma 202 and a credit to Finished Goods Inventory $ 3 comma 202 C. debit to Finished Goods Inventory $ 3 comma 202 and a credit to WorkminusinminusProcess Inventory $ 3 comma 202 D. debit to WorkminusinminusProcess Inventory $ 3 comma 202 and a credit to Finished Goods Inventory $ 3 comma 202
Business
1 answer:
Anastasy [175]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

C. debit to Finished Goods Inventory $ 3 comma 202 and a credit to Work minus Process Inventory $ 3 comma 202

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Finished goods inventory A/c Dr $3,202

             To Work in process inventory A/c $3,202

(Being the job is completed)

The computation is shown below:

= Direct material cost + Direct labor cost + manufacturing overhead cost

= $360 + $2,030  + $2,030 × 40%

= $360 + $2,030 + $812

= $3,202

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Answer:

$1,295.03

Explanation:

To find the answer, we will use the present value of an annuity formula:

PV = A ( 1 - (1 + i)^-n) / i

Where:

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  • A = Value of the Annuity (which will be our incognita)
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Finally, we plug the amounts into the formula, and solve:

75,500 = A (1 - (1 + 0.006)^-72) / 0.006

75,500 = A (58.3)

75,500 / 58.3 = A

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Thus, the monthly payments of the car loan will be $1,295.03 each month.

8 0
4 years ago
How is the balance sheet used to record amortization and why might it be useful as coupon payments are made?
MrMuchimi

Answer:

An intangible asset's annual amortization expense reduces its value on the balance sheet, which reduces the amount of total assets in the assets section of the balance sheet. This occurs until the end of the intangible asset's useful life.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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Answer:

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A perpetuity is a series of cash flows that are constant, occur after equal intervals of time and are for infinite period of time or are perpetual. Thus, it is like and annuity but with an infinite time period. The formula for the present value of of perpetuity is,

PV of Perpetuity = Cash Flow  /  r

Where,

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As we already know the present value of perpetuity and the required rate of return, we can input these values in the formula to calculate the annual perpetuity payment or cash flow.

29000 = Cash Flow / 0.07

29000 * 0.07  =  Cash Flow

Cash Flow = $2030

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3 years ago
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