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3 years ago

What’s 3/8×1/9 in the simplest form

Mathematics

2 answers:

mr Goodwill [35]3 years ago

7 0

Answer: $\frac{1}{24}$

Step-by-step explanation: To multiply fractions, first multiply across the numerators and then multiply across the denominators.

$(\frac{3}{8}) (\frac{1}{9}) = \frac{3}{72}$

$\frac{3}{72} = \frac{1}{24}$

Radda [10]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

1/24

Step-by-step explanation:

First, multiply the two fractions together.

3/8 * 1/9

Multiply the numerators:

3*1=3

And the denominators:

8*9=72

So, the fraction ends up being 3/72.

I need simplify the fraction by dividing both the numerator and the denominator by 3:

3/3=1

72/3=24

Simplified fraction is 1/24.

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Is 0.11 repeating a rational number? Why or why not?

Ostrovityanka [42]

It is a terminating decimal because it doesn’t repeat Numbers back-and-forth

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4 years ago

The width of a rectangle is 3.4 feet. The perimeter is 12.6 feet what is the length

lesya692 [45]

Answer:

the answer is 2.90

Step-by-step explanation:

Picture a rectangle, if one side is 3.4 then the other side 3.4. Add those two togerther gives you 6.8. Now you can subtract 6.8 from the perimeter which is 12.6 then that gives you 5.8. Then you split the 5.8 which give you 2.90 which is the length of the rectangle. So if you label all the sides of the rectangle like this 3.4 + 3.4 + 2.90 + 2.90 = 12.6

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3 years ago

You are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5. What is the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races

Veronika [31]

Answer:

The probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is 0.54432.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that you are running a race. The probability that you win is 3/5.

There are total of 6 races.

The above situation can be represented through binomial distribution;

$P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} \times p^{r} \times (1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,.....$

where, n = number of trials (samples) taken = 6 races

r = number of success = at most 2 lost

p = probability of success which in our question is probability that

you lose a race = 1 - (3/5) = 2/5 or 0.4

Let X = Number of races lost

So, X ~ Binom(n = 6, p = 0.40)

Now, the probability that you lose at most 2 out of your 6 races is given by = P(X $\leq$ 2)

P(X $\leq$ 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

= $\binom{6}{0} \times 0.40^{0} \times (1-0.40)^{6-0} + \binom{6}{1} \times 0.40^{1} \times (1-0.40)^{6-1} + \binom{6}{2} \times 0.40^{2} \times (1-0.40)^{6-2}$