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Sloan [31]
3 years ago
13

Explain why each of the following integrals is improper. (a) 4 x x − 3 dx 3 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integ

ration, it is a Type 1 improper integral. Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral. The integral is a proper integral. (b) [infinity] 1 1 + x3 dx 0 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral. Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral. The integral is a proper integral. (c) [infinity] x2e−x2 dx −[infinity] Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral. Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral. The integral is a proper integral. (d) π/4 cot(x) dx 0 Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral. Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral. The integral is a proper integral.
Mathematics
1 answer:
erma4kov [3.2K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a

   Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

b

   Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

c

  Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral

d

     Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral

Step-by-step explanation:

Considering  a

          \int\limits^4_3 {\frac{x}{x- 3} } \, dx

Looking at this we that at x = 3   this  integral will be  infinitely discontinuous

Considering  b    

        \int\limits^{\infty}_0 {\frac{1}{1 + x^3} } \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between 0 \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  c

       \int\limits^{\infty}_{- \infty} {x^2 e^{-x^2}} \, dx

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between -\infty \ and  \  \infty which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is  a Type 1 improper integral

Considering  d

        \int\limits^{\frac{\pi}{4} }_0  {cot (x)} \, dx

Looking at the integral  we see that  at  x =  0  cot (0) will be infinity  hence the  integral has an infinite discontinuity , so  it is a  Type 2 improper integral

     

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