D because it helps better and explains better and makes most sense
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
2g + h = 2 --------------(I)
g - h = -5------------(II)
g = -5 + h
Plugin g = -5 + h in equation (I)
2(-5 + h) + h = 2 {Distributive property:a(b+c) = a*b +a*c}
(-5)*2 + h *2 + h= 2
-10 + 2h + h = 2
3h = 2 + 10
3h = 12
h = 12/3
h = 4
Substitute h= 6 in equation (I)
2g + 4 = 2
2g = 2 - 4
2g = -2
g = -2/2
g = -1
X < -3. Subtract one from both sides and you get x + 8 over 5 is less than 1. Multiple both sides by 5 and you get x + 8 is less than 5. Finally, subtract 8 from both sides and you get x is less than -3.
Answer:
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Explanation:
Simulate (build a table) the growing of the number of pennies for some nights to figure out the pattern:
First night: 1 penny = 2⁰
Second night: 1 × 2 pennies = 2¹
Third night: 2 × 2 = 2²
Fourth nigth: 2² × 2 = 2³
nth night: 2ⁿ⁻¹
You want 2ⁿ⁻¹ ≥ 2,000,000,000
Which you solve in this way:
- n-1 log (2) ≥ log (2,000,000,000)
- n - 1 ≥ log (2,000,000,000) / log (2)
Since n is number of days, it is an integer number, so n ≥ 32.
Hence, she will have a total of more than $ 2 billion after 32 days.
You can prove that by calculating 2³² = 2,147,483,648.
Answer:
5/6
Step-by-step explanation:
The "first" dice can land on any number, so there are 6 choices. The "second" can not be the same number as the first one. So there are 5 choices. We multiply to get 6*5=30 ways to roll a different number. There are 6*6 total ways so the probability is 30/36 which simplifies to 5/6.
