If we consider the first half mile to be charged at $0.30 per tenth also, that half-mile costs $1.50 and the charges amount to a fixed fee of $2.00 and a variable fee of $0.30 per tenth mile.
After you subtract the $2 tip and the fixed $2 fee from the trip budget amount, you have $11.00 you can spend on mileage charges. At 0.30 per tenth mile, you can travel
... $11.00/$0.30 = 36 2/3 . . . . tenth-miles
The trip is measured in whole tenths, so you can ride ...
... 36 × 1/10 = 3.6 miles
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If you want to see this in the form of an equation, you can let x represent the miles you can travel. Then your budget amount gives rise to the inequality ...
... 3.50 + 0.30((x -.50)/0.10) + 2.00 ≤ 15.00
... 3.50 + 3x -1.50 +2.00 ≤15.00 . . . . . . . eliminate parentheses
... 3x ≤ 11.00 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . collect terms, subtract 4
... x ≤ 11/3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . divide by 3
... x ≤ 3.6 . . . . . rounded down to the tenth
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope its correct! :)
Keeping in mind that, there are 5280 feet in 1 mile, and 60 minutes in an hour and 60 seconds in each minute, thus 60*60 seconds in an hour, or 3600 seconds.
The probability of picking a blue jelly bean is 10/12=0.833, since there are 10 blue and 12 jelly beans in total.
Each time the probability of picking blue is the same, since put back in the box whatever jelly bean we pick
P(blue, blue, blue) = P(blue) × P(blue) × P(blue) = 0.833×0.833×0.833=0.579
Answer: 0.579
