Jefferson Davis supported slavery. In his speech, he mentions a counterclaim by Senator Seward that “the white laborer among us
is not enslaved only because he cannot yet be reduced to bondage.” Does Davis directly address the counterclaim? A- No, by stating: “… dislodge the Democracy from the possession of the federal Government, and assigns as a reason the friendship of that party for what he denominates the slave system.”
B- No, by stating: “…white men have an equality resulting from a presence of a lower caste, which cannot exist where white men fill the position here occupied by the servile race.”
C- Yes, by stating: “…white men have an equality resulting from a presence of a lower caste, which cannot exist where white men fill the position here occupied by the servile race.”
D- Yes, by stating: “… dislodge the Democracy from the possession of the federal Government, and assigns as a reason the friendship of that party for what he denominates the slave system.”
Yes, by stating: “…white men have an equality resulting from a presence of a lower caste, which cannot exist where white men fill the position here occupied by the servile race.”
Explanation:
The speeches and the way he addressed political affairs was always a clear demonstration of his support to slavery and he even actively fought for the right to slavery in the southern states, using expressions like "African slavery, as it exists in the United States, is a moral, a social, and a political blessing." he never missed any chance to express his opinion about it and to demonstrate to the ones who thought differently that he was going to defend this "right"
