What is the completely factored form of f(x) = x^3 – 2x^2

The local county officials need to calculate the capacity of a large hole for the garbage refuse dump. The dump hole is 250 ft l

stepan [7]

Multiply 250 by 120 and the answer is 300,000ft2

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Which of the following geometric series converges?

Artist 52 [7]

All three series converge, so the answer is D.

The common ratios for each sequence are (I) -1/9, (II) -1/10, and (III) -1/3.

Consider a geometric sequence with the first term a and common ratio |r| < 1. Then the n-th partial sum (the sum of the first n terms) of the sequence is

$S_n=a+ar+ar^2+\cdots+ar^{n-2}+ar^{n-1}$

Multiply both sides by r :

$rS_n=ar+ar^2+ar^3+\cdots+ar^{n-1}+ar^n$

Subtract the latter sum from the first, which eliminates all but the first and last terms:

$S_n-rS_n=a-ar^n$

Solve for $S_n$ :

$(1-r)S_n=a(1-r^n)\implies S_n=\dfrac a{1-r}-\dfrac{ar^n}{1-r}$

Then as gets arbitrarily large, the term $r^n$ will converge to 0, leaving us with

$S=\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}S_n=\frac a{1-r}$

So the given series converge to

(I) -243/(1 + 1/9) = -2187/10

(II) -1.1/(1 + 1/10) = -1

(III) 27/(1 + 1/3) = 18

8 0

3 years ago

Mr. Chen filled a wading pool with 20 gallons of water. How many pints of water did he put in a pool

eduard

Answer:

160 pints

Step-by-step explanation:

Every 1 gallon = 8 pints.

20x8=160

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the slope of the line

kumpel [21]

The slope is m=9 for the points.

3 0

3 years ago

A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.

Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

$p(m) = 0.52$ (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

$p(f) = 0.48$ (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over 2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

$p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)$

And substituting, we find

$p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27$

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

$p(ff)$

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

$p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)$