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VARVARA [1.3K]
3 years ago
6

The accounting department of a large firm is interested in modeling the dynamic of its accounts receivable (that is,the money th

at is owed to it by its customers) when a charge sale occurs,abill is sent out at the end of the month .payment is due within thirty days ,but may not occure in that time.if no payment is received within six months of the billing date,the amount is classified as bad debt.thus,an individual account is described by its age in months,or by "paid" or by "bad debt".For numerical values,assume that the prob. that payment is made in the first month is 0.8 and decline by 0.1 each additional month.that is,the prob.it is paid in the second month is 0.7 ,in the third month is 0.6,and so on. Formulate the terminating Markov chain that describes the debt payment.
Business
1 answer:
Illusion [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Here is the Markov chain, when the problem says 'terminating' it means that the probability after seven months never changes. After six months

accounting moves it to "bad debt," and, for the purposes of this problem, transistion probabilites end.

Month one: paid 0.8 unpaid 0.2

Month two: paid 0.7 unpaid 0.3

Month three: paid 0.6 unpaid 0.4

Month four: paid 0.5 unpaid 0.5

Month five: paid 0.4 unpaid 0.6

Month six: paid 0.3 unpaid 0.7

Month seven: and above paid 0 unpaid 1.0

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Answer:

59% - a)increase - b)decrease

Explanation:

First of all, we should say that the real exchange rate is calculated by multiplying the nominal exchange rate for the price index and then divide it by the price index of the other country. In another language, using this case as the example, the first nominal exchange rate is 50, as you need 50 rupees to buy 1 dollar. So to calculate the real exchange rate you need to multiply 50 by 100 (the price index of USA) and then divide it by 100 (the price index of India). Note that both price indexes are 100, just a coincidence for making easier the question. Result: 50.

Then we calculate the next real exchange rate: multiply 60 (the new nominal exchange rate) by 106 (the new US price index) and divide by 80 (the new India price index). This throws a result of 79,5. We see a 29,5 increase, and 29,5 represents 59% of 50 (the initial real exchange rate).

Then both questions is more common sense than the reading of the results we just calculated. For example, nominal exchange rate changed from 50 to 60, so the people in India will now have to collect 10 more rupees to buy the same dollar. Let's suppose a pair of shoes in USA costs 40 dollars. Before, Indians needed 2000 rupees to buy it. Now they will need 2400 rupees... it will be more expensive. Plus, the prices of USA had gone up 6%, which means the pair of shoes will now cost 42,4 dollars... even more expensive! As products in USA are more expensive, we can expect that India's consumption of American goods will decrease (law of demand).

With the American consumption of Indian goods happens the opposite, the goods in India became cheaper (price index has fallen), and for the Americans, the same dollars they had will buy more rupees when the exchange rate changed to 60.

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And considering that if the actual labor rate exceeds the standard labor rate and if the actual labor-hours exceed the number of hours allowed, the total labor flexible budget variance will be unfavorable. As the variance is the difference between the Standard Cost and Actual Cost. So if both Standard rate & Standard hrs. are more than actual rate & actual hrs., Actual cost will be more than standard cost i.e. the variance will be unfavorable

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8 0
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