Answer:
The answer is: $18, 750
Explanation:
The double-declining-balance(DDB) method entails computing depreciation of an asset at an accelerated rate. This method is employed when the asset loses value quickly and is expected to generate more revenue at the earlier stages of its useful life. The depreciation is higher at the beginning and lower close to the end of the asset's useful life. The depreciation is computed as follows:
Depreciation = 2 * straight line depreciation percentage * Book value at the beginning of the period
Machine cost: $75, 000
Residual Value: $5, 000
Estimated Life: 4 years/18, 000 hours
Straight line depreciation percentage : 100/4 = 25%
Depreciation Year 1 on DDB = 2 * 25% * $75, 000
= $37, 500
Depreciation Year 2 on DDB = 2 * 25% * ($75, 000 -$37, 500)
= $18, 750
Answer:
Correct option is C.
Step wise solution is given below for demonstration.
Answer:
yield to maturity YTM = 35%
Explanation:
given data
purchase price = $8,000
face value = $10,000
current yield = 10%
solution
we get here yield to maturity YTM
so first we get Annual Coupon by current yield that is express as
Current yield = annual coupon ÷ current price ..............1
put here value we get
Annual Coupon = 10 % × 8,000
Annual Coupon = $800
now we get YTM by purchase price that is
purchase price = Annual Coupon ÷ ( 1+YTM ) + face value ÷ ( 1+YTM ) .......2
put here value we get
8,000 = 
solve it we get
yield to maturity YTM = 35%
Answer:
A
Explanation:
In this question, we are to evaluate the validity of the options. We were told he used the acquisition method. When do we use the acquisition method?
The acquisition method is used when a company is taken in by another company by using a merger, acquisition or through a consolidation.
Now, out of all the options presented, we can see that the selling price less the acquisition value is recorded as a realized gain or loss.
Answer:
b. Liabilities are understated by $4,167 accrued interest payable
Explanation:
