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Amiraneli [1.4K]
3 years ago
9

I need help with this please ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
stepladder [879]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

supplementary

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a and b form a straight line, they will add to 180 degrees

Two angles that add to 180 degrees are supplementary angles

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PLEASE SOLVE. FIRST ANSWER WITH EXPLANATION GETS MOST BRAINLIEST AND 10 POINTS. THANKS ;)
Murljashka [212]
Total angle sum will always equal 360 degrees. Due to vertical angles theorem, we know the angles opposite the polynomials also equal the polynomials. So, we can double both of them (like solving for perimeter) and sum them to 360.

Thus, 360 = 2(2x + 10) + 2(x+ 5)

360 = 2(2x + 10 + x + 5)
360 = 2(3x + 15)
180 = 3x + 15
165 = 3x
x = 55
7 1
3 years ago
If f(x) and its inverse function, F(x), are both plotted on the same coordinate plane, what is their point of intersection?
polet [3.4K]

Answer:  d) (3, 3)

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

Inverse is when you swap the x's and y's.

Let's look at the points and find their inverse:

  f(x)           f⁻¹(x)

(0, -2)  -->  (-2, 0)

(1, -1)   -->   (-1, 1)

(2, 0)  -->   (0, 2)

(3, 3)   -->   (3, 3)       f(x) = f⁻¹(x) so this is where they intersect!

5 0
3 years ago
What is 817x45 in standerd algorithm pls help
sineoko [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

  817

x 45

_______

+   4085

+  32680

__________

36,765

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Samples of 20 parts from a metal punching process are selected every hour. Typically, 1% of the parts require rework. Let X deno
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

a) P(X>np+3\sqrt{np(1-p)}=0.017

b) P(x>1)=0.190

c) P(Y>1)=0.651

Step-by-step explanation:

This a binomial experiment where success is denoted by parts that need rework.

X ∼ B(n, p); n = 20; p = 0.01

The expected value of X is: E(X) = np =20×0.01= 0.2

The variance is: Var(X) = np(1 − p) = 0.2 × 0.99 = 0.198,

The standard deviation SD(X)= \sqrt{0.198} ≈ 0.445

a) P(X>np+3\sqrt{np(1-p)}=P(X>0.2+3×0.445)=P(X>1.535)=P(X≥2)

Probability function is given by:

\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!} *p^x*(1-p)^{(n-x)}

P(X≥2)=1-P(X<2)=1-P(X=1)-P(X=0)= 1 - \frac{20!}{1!(20-1)!} *(0.01)^{1}*(1-0.01)^{(20-1)}-\frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.01)^{0}*(1-0.01)^{(20-0)}

P(X≥2)=1-0.165-0.818=0.017

b) p=0.04

P(x>1)=P(x≥2)= 1 - P(x=1) - P(x=0)= 1 - \frac{20!}{0!(20-1)!} *(0.04)^{1}*(1-0.04)^{(20-1)} - \frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.04)^{0}*(1-0.04)^{(20-0)}

P(x>1)= 1 - 0.368 - 0.442=0.190

c) In this case we consider p=0.19 (Probability that X exceeds 1)

In this experiment Y is the number of hours and n= 5 hours.

Then, we check the probability in each hour:

P(Y>1)=1- P(Y=0)

P(Y=0)=\frac{5!}{0!(5-0)!} *(0.19)^{0}*(1-0.19)^{(5-0)}=0.349

P(Y>1)=1-0.349=0.651

3 0
3 years ago
If it is 8:50 a.m., what will the time be 4 hours and 20 minutes later?
Stels [109]

Answer:

1:10 pm

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>60 minutes in an hour</em>, so

8:50am + <u>4 hours</u> = 12:50pm

12:50pm + <u>20 minutes</u> = 1:10pm

8 0
3 years ago
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