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Sedbober [7]
3 years ago
12

The ISO 9000 perspective on quality is that quality is basically defined by: Select one: a. senior management b. customers c. pr

oject sponsors d. project managers
Business
1 answer:
inna [77]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Option "A" is the most appropriate answer to the following  statement.

Explanation:

The ISO 9000 is a  quality management program that defines rules for organizations to ensure that they maintain the proper requirements of consumers and other key stakeholders within a product or service-related legislative and regulatory criteria.

The seven concepts of quality assurance are:

1-Consumer Awareness

2-Leadership

3-People Relationship

4-Process Strategy

5-Improvement

6-Evidence-based

7-product Control.

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TB MC Qu. 08-104 Marlow Company purchased a point of... Marlow Company purchased a point of sale system on January 1 for $3,400.
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

$680

Explanation:

Calculation to determine What would be the depreciation expense for the first year of its useful life using the double-declining-balance method

Depreciation expense=3400*(100%/10 * 2)

Depreciation expense=3400*.2

Depreciation expense= 680

Therefore What would be the depreciation expense for the first year of its useful life using the double-declining-balance method is $680

3 0
2 years ago
Mr. West wishes to purchase a condominium for $240,000 in cash upon his retirement 10 years from now. How much should he deposit
Oduvanchick [21]

Answer:

He should deposit $1,744.37 at the end of each month.

Explanation:

This can be calculated using the formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value or the of condominium = $240,000

M = Monthly payment = ?

r = monthly interest rate = 2.7% / 12 = 0.027 / 12 = 0.00225

n = number of months = 10 years * 12 months = 120

Substituting the values into equation (1) and solve for M, we have:

$240,000 = M * (((1 + 0.00225)^120 - 1) / 0.00225)

$240,000 = M * 137.585424499073

M = $240,000 / 137.585424499073

M = $1,744.37

Therefore, he should deposit $1,744.37 at the end of each month.

8 0
2 years ago
The proper order of the following steps in the accounting cycle is prepare unadjusted trial balance, journalize transactions, po
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

<em>The Accounting Cycle is as follows:</em>

<em>1. Transactions are analyzed and recorded in the journal. </em>

<em>2. Transactions are posted to the ledger.</em>

<em>3. An unadjusted trial balance is prepared. </em>

<em>4. Adjustment data are asssembled and analyzed. </em>

<em>5. An optional end-of-period spreadsheet is prepared. </em>

<em>6. Adjusting entries are journalized and posted to the ledger. </em>

<em>7. An adjusted trial balance is prepared. </em>

<em>8. Financial statements are prepared. </em>

<em>9. Closing entries are journalized and posted to the ledger. </em>

<em>10. A post-closing trial balance is prepared. </em>

<em />

8 0
3 years ago
Malik Boykin is paid $8.20 per hour. and time and a half for any work over 40 hours
Viefleur [7K]

<u>Pay of Malik Boykin:</u>

Step 1:

Adding the total hours for each week:

Week of 3/10 = 5.5+6+9+12+7 = 39.5

Week of 3/17 = 8+8.5+9+13+4.5+4 = 47

Step 2:

Any sum of 40 hours or less gets multiplied by the hourly salary:

Week of 3/10: 39.5\times\$8.20 = \$323.90 - That's the pay for that week

Week of 3/17: 40\times\$8.20 = \$328

Step 3:

For hours worked over 40 the salary is 1.5 times the normal salary:

\Rightarrow\$8.20\times1.5 = \$12.30

Now multiply the hours over 40 for that week by the time and a half:

\Rightarrow\$12.30\times7 = \$86.10

And adding it to the \$328 we get,

\$328+\$86.10=\$414.10

Therefore,  Week of 3/10: \bold{\$323.90}  and  Week of 3/17: \bold{\$414.10}

6 0
3 years ago
One year ago, you purchased 500 shares of stock for $22 a share. The stock pays $0.32 a share in dividends each year. Today, you
galben [10]

Answer:

no option is correct

long term capital gains = ($24.50 - $22) x 500 = $1,250

dividend income = $0.32 x 500 = $160

total return = $1,410

Maybe your teacher is asking about long term capital gains only. If that is the case, then option A. $1,250 is correct

Explanation:

total return = ending value - initial value + dividends received = (500 x $24.50) - (500 x $22) + (500 x $0.32) = $12,250 - $11,000 + $160 = $1,410

holding period return = (ending value - initial value + dividends received) / initial value = $1,410 / $11,000 = 0.1282 = 12.82%

8 0
2 years ago
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