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Ainat [17]
3 years ago
14

A. The company provided $2,200 in services to customers that are expected to pay the company sometime in January following the c

ompany's year-end.
b. Wage expenses of $1,200 have been incurred but are not paid as of December 31.

c. The company has a $5,200 bank loan and has incurred but not recorded an 8% interest expense of $416 for the year ended December 31. The company will pay the $416 interest in cash on January 2 following the company's year-end.

d. The company contracted with a firm for lawn services to be provided at a monthly fee of $520 with payment occurring on the 15th of the following month. Payment for December services will occur on January 15 following the company's year-end.

e. The company has earned $220 in Interest revenue from investments for the year ended December 31. The interest revenue will be received on January 15 following the company's year-end.

f. Salary expenses of $920 have been earned by supervisors but not paid as of December 31.

Prepare year-end adjusting journal entries as of December 31, 2017, for each of the above separate cases.
Business
2 answers:
11Alexandr11 [23.1K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

You have to identify which account will affect each transaction and if the nature is Debit or Credit:

a. Sales (C) $ 2,200 and Accounts Receivable (D) $ 2,200

b. Wages expenses (D) $ 1,200 and Wages payables (C) $ 1,200

c. Interes expenses (D) $ 416 and Interes payable (C) $ 416

d. Sales (C) $ 520 and Accounts Receivable (D) $ 520

e. Interes income (C) $ 220  and Other Accounts Receivable (D) $ 220

f. Salary expenses (D) $ 920 and Salaries payables (C) $ 920

FrozenT [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Year end journal entries are given below in explanation

Explanation:

a. Company provided service to customer which means that company has earned revenue

Account                                             Dr                  Cr

Accounts Receivable                       2200

Sales/Revenue                                                        2200

b. Wages expense have incurred but are not paid yet. Thus, its Liability should be booked.

Wages Expense                                1200

Wages payable / Liability                                        1200

c. The company has taken loan from the bank. Interest due on the loan is 416 but are not paid yet.

Interest Expense                                416

interest Payable                                                       416

d.  The company had contract for lawn service. To book the expense of lawn service

Lawn Service Expense                        520

Lawn Service Payable                                                520

e. The company has also made some investment. $ 220 is earned on that investment. to book the non operating income

Interest revenue receivable                220

Interest revenue - Non operating income                   220

f. Salaries of Supervisor is due on  31 st December but are not paid yet.

Salaries Expense                                   920

Salaries payable                                                              920                              

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Compensation for top executives (e.g., CEOs and CFOs) has become more variable over time. For example, recent data show that in
Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

Because :- CEOs & CFOs can have significant impacts throughout the entire business, & the type of reward plan will encourage the CFOs to work in a more rational manner.

Explanation:

CEOs & CFOs are a part of upper level of management of an organisation. Effectiveness & Efficiency of their managerial skills is very crucial to management of company. So, to encourage proper management of companies by senior managers, they can be incentivised by mix of fixed & variable salary structure. The variable component of salary as per company performance under CEO or CFO, positively motivates them to improvise their performance, which subsequently improves company performance.

3 0
3 years ago
ABC, a chain of candy stores, purchases its candy in bulk from its suppliers. For a recent shipment, the company paid $1,500 and
spin [16.1K]

Answer: Option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

Amount paid for candy = $1,500

Items received = 8,500 pieces of candy

Group 1 =  2,500 pieces

Selling price = $0.15 each

sale value = pieces sold × Selling price

                 = 2,500 ×  $0.15 each

                 = $375

Group 2 = 5,500 pieces

Selling price = $0.36 each

sale value = pieces sold × Selling price

                 = 5,500 ×  $0.36 each

                 = $1,980

Group 3 = 500 pieces

Selling price = $0.72 each

sale value = pieces sold × Selling price

                 = 500 ×  $0.72 each

                 = $360

Total sale value = $375 + $1,980 + $360

                           = $2,715

Percentage\ of\ sale\ in\ Group\ 2=\frac{Sale\ value}{Total\ sale\ value}\times 100

Percentage\ of\ sale\ in\ Group\ 2=\frac{1,980}{2,715}\times 100

= 72.92%

Proportion of cost for Group 2 = cost × Percentage of sale in Group 2

                                                   = $1,500 × 72.92%

                                                   = $1,093.8

cost\ per\ unit= \frac{cost}{total\ units}

cost\ per\ unit= \frac{1,093.8}{5,500}

= $0.1988

= $0.20(approx)

4 0
3 years ago
To satisfy demands for withdrawals, banks keep:
astra-53 [7]
C. balance sheets

explanation:
6 0
3 years ago
Crich Corporation uses direct labor-hours in its predetermined overhead rate. At the beginning of the year, the estimated direct
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

c. Under applied $ 1,340  

Explanation:

Computation of predetermined overhead rate

Estimated manufacturing overhead                                        $ 594,960

Estimated direct labor hours                                                          22,200 hours

Predetermined overhead rate per direct labor hour

$ 594,960 / 22,200 hours                                                      $ 26.80 per hour

Actual Direct Labor hours                                                              22,150 hours

Applied overhead at predetermined direct labor rate

$ 26.80 * 22,150 hours                                                               $   593,680

Actual overhead                                                                          <u>$   594,960</u>

Overhead under applied                                                            $     ( 1,340)                

5 0
3 years ago
A metallurgist has one alloy containing 26%26% copper and another containing 69%69% copper. How many pounds of each alloy must h
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

Ans. He must use 2,987.76 pounds of alloy X (Cu=69%) and 2,365.24 pounds of alloy Y (26%=Cu)

Explanation:

Hi, let´s call alloy X the alloy that contains 69% of Cu and alloy Y the one containing 26% of Cu. Since he needs to produce 5,353 pounds of alloy, the first equation that we need to use is the following.

X+Y=5,353

Now, we need this 5,353 pounds of the new alloy to be 50% Cu, therefore, we have to use a portion of alloy X and alloy Y. This is as follows.

0.69X+0.26Y=0.5(X+Y)

And we have already established that X+Y is equal to 5,353, therefore this equation should look like this.

0.69X+0.26Y=5,353*0.5

0.69X+0.26Y=2,676.5

And we solve for X this equation, this as follows.

0.69X=2,676.5-0.26Y

X=\frac{2,676.5-0.26Y}{0.69}

X=3,878.98-0.3768Y

Now, we use this result and substitute this for X in the first equation like this.

3,878.98-0.3768Y+Y=5,353

and then, we solve for Y

0.6232Y=5,353-3,878.98

Y=\frac{1,474.02}{0.6232} =2,365.24

So, he needs to use 2,365.24 pounds of alloy that contains 26% of Cu, this means that the rest (2,987.76 pounds) must come from the alloy that contains 69% of Cu.

We can check this result by finding the overall Cu obtained by this amounts of alloy, that is

Coppper FromX=2,987.76*0.69=2,061.55

Coppper FromY=2,365.24*0.26=614.96

That adds up to 2,676.51 pounds of pure Cu, and since the total weight of the new alloy is 5,353, this amount of copper makes up for:

PercentCu=\frac{2,676.51}{5,353} =0.5

50% of the total weight.

Best of luck.

7 0
3 years ago
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