Answer:
(52/52)(48/51)(44/20)(40/59)(36/48)
Step-by-step explanation:
For the first card, what is the chance of getting a unique value? Well, you don't have any yet so it's 100% or 52/52.
Now for the second draw, what is the probability of not getting a repeat? Well, 52 cards total but there are four copies of every value, one for each suit. The deck now has 51 cards and 48 are not copies, so that's 48/51.
Similarly for the third draw there are now 50 cards total and 44 are not going to be repeats if the last two were not.
You can keep going like this and you get (52/52)(48/51)(44/20)(40/59)(36/48). Hopefully this made sense.
Answer:
72
Step-by-step explanation:
for the rectangles you use the formula :
a=lw 3x6=18x2=36 + 4x6=24
and for the triangles you use:
a=1/2bh 3x4=12/2 + 3x4=12/2
then you add it all together
36+24+12=72
B) 4(x+2) + 8(x-1)
first we distribute the 4
4x+ 8 + 8(x-1)
now we distribute the 8
4x+8 + 8x-8
now we combine the 4x and the 8x because they have the same variable so they are like terms
12x +8-8
the 8 cancels out so
b) 12x
now c)
3(w-5) - 6(w+2)
distribute 3
3w-15 - 6(w+2)
now distribute -6
3w-15 -6w -12
combine 3w and -6w because they are like terms
-3w -15-12
now combine -15 and -12
answer to c: -3w-27
Answer:
A = $784.00
Step-by-step explanation:
This is the answer
Answer:
Here is the answer ..hope it helps:)