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Law Incorporation [45]
3 years ago
8

The Rivoli Company has no debt outstanding, and its financial position is given by the following data:

Business
1 answer:
anzhelika [568]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Intrinsic value is $45

Explanation:

The starting point to determining Rivoli Company intrinsic value is to compute the earning after tax as shown below:

Earnings after tax=earning before tax*(1-tax rate)

earnings before tax is $600,000

tax rate

earnings after tax=$600,000*(1-0.25)

                               =$600,000*0.75

                               =$450,000

Then we need to compute earnings per share;

Earnings per shares=earnings after tax/weighted average number of shares

                                 =$450,000/100,000

                                =$4.5

Intrinsic value=earnings per share/cost of equity

  cost of equity is 10%

intrinsic value=$4.5/10%

                      =$45

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dedylja [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is True.

Explanation:

A marketing strategy helps to create products and services with the best possibilities of obtaining benefits. This is because the marketing strategy begins with market research, taking into account the optimal target customer, what the competition is doing and what trends could be on the horizon.

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3 years ago
Time lags associated with policy decision making and implementation suggest that______.a.increases in spending to fight a recess
arlik [135]

Answer:

B) increases in spending to fight a recessionary gap may occur too late.

Explanation:

Time lags refers to the time that passes between making a decision and implementing the decision. For example, the FED announces its intention to increase or decrease their interest rate with a lot of anticipation, and sometimes it would be better if they just did it.

Politicians are famous for talking a lot and doing very little, and that happens in every country in the world. During recessions words aren't needed, actions are needed. The problem is that many times words are abundant and actions are scarce. A small problem that is not dealt swiftly and properly can become a huge problem.

5 0
3 years ago
To which of the following would a
nirvana33 [79]

Answer:

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4 0
2 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
3 years ago
Harding, Jones, and Sandy, a partnership, is in the process of liquidating. The partners have the following capital account bala
Radda [10]

Answer: <em><u>Cash to be distributed to  Harding = $ 17000,  Jones = $ 3000 </u></em>

Explanation:

It has been indicated that the ($9,000) deficit will be covered with a forthcoming contribution

∴ The Remaining Capital Balance is = (24000 + 24000) = $48000

∵Total cash Available = $20000

Loss = 48000 - 20000 =  $ 28000

Loss will be shared between Harding & Jones in ratio = 16:48

∴  Harding Capital balance = \frac{(24000 - 28000)\times16}{16+48} = $ 17000

∴ Jones Capital balance =  \frac{(24000 - 28000)\times48}{16+48} = $ 3000

Cash will be Distributed in their capital balance ratio

Therefore,

<u><em>Cash to be distributed to  Harding = $ 17000,  Jones = $ 3000 </em></u>

7 0
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