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3 years ago

Does the market system result in allocative efficiency? in the long run, perfect competition

Business

1 answer:

Inga [223]3 years ago

7 0

C.

Allocative efficiency in simple terms basically means there is no wastage, therefore if producers produce at price equals marginal coat, they are producing at the point where consumers are willing to pay that final price. Refer to the poorly drawn diagram for reference.

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A corporate treasury working out of Vienna with operations in New York simultaneously calls Citibank in New York City and Barcla

WARRIOR [948]

Answer:

Given $1 million and the following quotes:

Bank C - $0.7551-61/€

Bank B - $0.7545-75/€

There are two different arbitrage strategies that can be attempted. The first is to buy euros from bank B, and then sell them to bank C:

Buy euros Bank B:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x Euro / $ 0.7575

Euros to be bought = 1,320,132.01 Euros

Sell euros Bank C:

Euros to be sold = 1,320,132.01 euros x $0.7551 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $996,831.68

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $996,831.68 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$3,168.32

The second strategy involves buy euros from bank C and selling them to bank B: Buy euros Bank C:

Euros to be bought = $1,000,000 x Euro / $ 0.7561

Euros to be bought = 1,322,576.38 Euros

Sell euros Bank B:

Euros to be sold = 1,322,576.38 euro x 0.7545 / Euro

Euros to be sold = $997,883.88

The profit/loss can be calculated by subtracting the original starting amount of dollars by the post-arbitrage amount:

Profit/loss = $997,883.88 - $1,000,000

Profit/loss = -$2,116.12

In both instances a loss is made by the arbitrage. The arbitrager cannot make a profit using these quotes.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

At December 31, 2013, before any year-end adjustments, Macarty Company's Prepaid Insurance account had a balance of $2,700. It w

gtnhenbr [62]

The adjusting entry would recognise insurance expense of $1,500.

Explanation:

The policy of an insurance company, tax insurance, insurance for business failure, etc. typically lasts a year, with payments charged in full (insurance premiums). Insurance policy is never the same as the financial year of the product. There are also expected to be several consolidated financial statements and some partial financial statements for compensation premiums.

Example of insurance premium payment:

On 31 December, the insurer files an correction report in order to document the expired (extended) cost of insurance and to the the pre-paid number. This is done with an premium fee of $1,000 and a prepayment policy bonus of $1,000.

4 0

3 years ago

Based on what you have read, what is the opportunity

Crazy boy [7]

Answer:a higher quality item

Explanation:

A higher quality them

5 0

3 years ago

Joker stock has a sustainable growth rate of 7 percent, ROE of 10 percent, and dividends per share of $1.20. If the P/E ratio is

belka [17]

Answer:

P/E ratio = Market price per share

Earnings per share

15 = Market price per share

Market price per share = 15 x $4 = $60

Growth rate = Retention rate x ROE

0.07 = Retention rate x 0.10

0.07 = Retention rate

0.10

Retention rate = 0.7 = 70%

Dividend pay-out ratio = 100% - 70%

Dividend pay-out ratio = 30%

Earnings per share = 100/30 x $1.20 = $4

Explanation:

In this case, we will apply the formula of price-earnings ratio, which is market price per share divided by earnings per share. The P/E ratio was given while the earnings per share is derived. The market price per share becomes the subject of the formula.

In order to determine the earnings per share, we need to obtain the retention ratio by applying the formula of growth rate. In this case, growth rate and ROE were provided in the question with the exception of retention rate. Thus, the retention rate is made the subject of the formula. Having obtained the retention rate, we will now obtain the dividend payout ratio which is 100% minus retention rate.

Then, we will obtain the earnings per share by dividing 100 by the pay-out ratio multiplied by the dividend per share.

8 0

3 years ago

The U.S. work week has declined from 60 hours in 1890 to 40 hours today. The impact of the decline in working hours:________

Len [333]

Answer:

It will Decreases U.S. real GDP and on the other way round it will increases the well-being of a typical working person in the U.S.

Explanation:

The impact of the decline in working hours is that it will Decreases U.S. real GDP and on the other way round it will definitely lead to increase in the well-being of a typical working person in the U.S. because of the decline in the U.S work week which was formally 60 hours in the 1980 but now 40 hours today because a typical working person will have more time for him/her and the stress involved in working for 60 hours per week will reduce when compared with working for 40 hours per week because a typical working person in the U.S will preferred to work for 40 hours per week than 60hours per week for the betterment of their well being.

4 0

3 years ago

Does the market system result in allocative​ efficiency? in the long​ run, perfect competition

Does the market system result in allocative efficiency? in the long run, perfect competition