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AlekseyPX
2 years ago
9

If Cute Camel ever goes bankrupt, its common stockholders will be paid off first, then its debtholders and preferred stockholder

s. This statement is , because:
Business
1 answer:
vichka [17]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: incorrect; This is because the common shareholders are typically treated as being residual investors.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that if Cute Camel ever goes bankrupt, its common stockholders will be paid off first, then its debtholders and preferred stockholders.

This above scenario is untrue. It should be noted that common shareholders are typically treated as being residual investors and therefore won't be paid off first.

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What is the main difference between whole life insurance and term life insurance?
Stella [2.4K]

Whole life insurance is a type of program that you pay for your "whole life." The premiums tend to stay level on whole life policies.

On the other hand, term life insurance gradually gets more expensive as you get older. Term life insurance is simply the pure cost of insurance with no savings element.

8 0
2 years ago
If a company spends $20 million to install new footwear-making equipment with capacity to produce 1 million pairs of athletic fo
labwork [276]

Answer: 10% or $2,000,000

Explanation:

Seeing as no figures were produced, we will have to do this ourselves.

We will make assumptions which include the following,

Life of the equipment = 10 Years

Salvage value = 0

Those are our 2 assumptions.

In that case then,

The Annual Depreciation will be,

Depreciation = (Cost of equipment - Estimated salvage value) / Estimated useful life

= (20 - 0) / 10

= $2 million

Seeing as 2 million is,

= 2/20 * 100

= 10%

That would mean that annual depreciation costs at that facility will rise by $2 million or 10%.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

3 0
3 years ago
Problem 5-35 Comparing Cash Flow Streams [LO 1] You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

PV of 1st option = $185,015.50

PV of 2nd option = $192,683.78

Explanation:

Computing the present value of the monthly payments, we use the formula PV = \frac{A(1-(1+r)^{-n}) }{r}

Where PV = present value of the monthly payments

A = monthly salary

r = monthly interest rate = 6%/12 = 0.5% = 0.005

n = number of months = 24 months

PV of the 1st option, $8,200 monthly for the next 2 year

PV = \frac{8,200(1-(1.005)^{-24}) }{0.005} = $185,015.50.

PV of the 2ns option, $6,900 monthly + $37,000 signing bonus

PV = \frac{6,900(1-(1.005)^{-24}) }{0.005}+37,000 = $155,683.78 + $37,000 = $192,683.78.

7 0
3 years ago
Lập bản kế hoạch ra mắt sản phẩm
Pavel [41]

Answer:

hope it's help you ok have a good day

6 0
2 years ago
Those who believe in
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

C. The government can change the reserve

ratio.

5 0
2 years ago
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