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AlekseyPX
3 years ago
9

If Cute Camel ever goes bankrupt, its common stockholders will be paid off first, then its debtholders and preferred stockholder

s. This statement is , because:
Business
1 answer:
vichka [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: incorrect; This is because the common shareholders are typically treated as being residual investors.

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that if Cute Camel ever goes bankrupt, its common stockholders will be paid off first, then its debtholders and preferred stockholders.

This above scenario is untrue. It should be noted that common shareholders are typically treated as being residual investors and therefore won't be paid off first.

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What is credit risk management?​
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

Credit Risk Manager. Also referred to as: Manager - Credit Risk Management. Requirements and Responsibilities. Develops and implements policies and procedures that reduce credit risk for a financial institution. Manages the building of financial models that predict credit risk exposure to the organization.

7 0
3 years ago
You want a new cell phone. Which of these sources would be the most dependable?
ahrayia [7]
I would say that b is the best answer
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The common stock of the P.U.T.T. Corporation has been trading in a narrow price range for the past month, and you are convinced
konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

A) according to put call parity:

price of put option = call option - stock price + [future value / (1 + risk free rate)ⁿ]

put = $6.93 - $125 + [$140 / (1 + 5%)¹/⁴] = $6.93 - $125 +$138.30 = $20.23

B)

you have to purchase both a put and call option ⇒ straddle

the total cost of the investment = $6.93 + $20.23 = $27.16, this way you can make a profit if the stock price increases higher than $125 + $20.23 = $145.23 or decreases below than $125 - $20.23 = $104.77

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following are assumptions of the simple CAPM model? I. Individual trades of investors do not affect a stock's price
lisabon 2012 [21]

Answer:

I, II, and III are all correct and part of this model

Explanation:

The CAPM model or Capital Asset Pricing Model indicates the relationship between the amount of risk and the expected profit for a certain investment. This model holds many assumptions, which from the ones provided we can say that assumptions I, II, and III are all correct and part of this model. The only assumption that is not correct is IV, since the level of risk aversion that each investor has depends on how much they know about their investment.

I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.

7 0
3 years ago
Flawless Cosmetic Company manufactures and distributes several different products. The company currently uses a plantwide alloca
IgorC [24]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.      

Explanation:

Total Overhead Cost:

= (Overhead × Number of cases) for all products

= (20 × 350) + (25 × 550) + (17 × 650)

= 31,800

Total Machine Hours:

= Machine hours × Number of cases

= (5 × 350) + (3 × 550) + (4 × 650)

= 6,000

Overhead Rate:

= Total Overhead Cost ÷ Total Machine Hours

= 31,800 ÷ 6,000

= 5.30

Total product cost per case for Product GC:

= Direct Material + Direct Labor + Overhead

= 80 + 30 + (Machine hours × Overhead Rate)

= 80 + 30 + (3 × 5.3)

= 80.00 + 30.00 + 15.90

= $125.90

4 0
3 years ago
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