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Misha Larkins [42]
3 years ago
6

Which of the following is not necessarily true of metapopulations?

Biology
1 answer:
Oxana [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Option C, Each subpopulation is linked to all other subpopulations by dispersal.

Explanation:

Each sub-population with in a metapopulation is not only connected by the dispersal distance travelled by an organism but also by the distance between the patches on which two sub population live. There are several other factors that limitise the concept of connection of subpopulation by dispersal factor and these vulnerable factors are – properties of terrain between the patches and its adverse affect on the dispersal behaviour of dispersing agent/species.

Hence, option C is correct.

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Each of the four pedigrees that follow represents a human family within which a genetic disease is segregating. Affected individ
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 Answer:

<u> The following four traits are -: </u>

  • <u>Pedigree 1 -</u> A recessive trait (autosomal recessive)  is expressed by pedigree 1.
  • <u>Pedigree 2- Recessive inheritance is defined by Pedigree 2. </u>
  • <u>Pedigree 3</u> - The inheritance of the dominant trait (autosomal dominant) is illustrated by Pedigree 3.
  • <u>Pedigree 4-</u> An X-like dominant trait is expressed by Pedigree 4.    

Explanation:

<u>Explaination of each pedigree chart</u>-

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  • <u> Recessive inheritance</u> is defined by <u>Pedigree 2</u>. This is<u> X-related inheritance as autosomal recessive</u> inheritance has already been accounted for in part 1. This inference is confirmed by evidence showing that the father (I-1) is unaffected and that only the sons exhibit the characteristic in generation II, suggesting that the mother must be the carrier. The individual I-2 is a carrier for this X-linked trait. A typical  Xa chromosome is attached to the unaffected father (I-1), so the chance of carrier II-5 is 1/2. Probability of an affected son = 1/2 (probability II-5 is a carrier) x 1/2 (probability II -5 contributes (X^A) x 1/2 (probability of Y from father II-6) = 1/8. An affected daughter's likelihood is 0 because a typical X^A must be contributed by II-6.
  • The inheritance of the<u> dominant trait</u> is demonstrated by <u>Pedigree 3 </u>because affected children still have affected parents (remember that all four diseases are rare). The trait must be <u>autosomal dominant</u> because it is passed down to the son by the affected father. There is a 1/2 risk that the heterozygous mother (II-5) would pass on mutant alleles to a child of either sex for an autosomal dominant feature.
  • <u>Pedigree 4</u> is an <u>X-linked dominant function</u> characterized by the transmission to all of his daughters from the affected father but none of his son. On the mutant X chromosome, the father (I-1) passes on to all his daughters and none of his sons. As seen by his normal phenotype, II-6 therefore does not bear the mutation. An affected child's likelihood is 0.    

In the question the pedigree chart was missing ,hence it is given below.

     

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