Answer:
The answer is 9.85%
Explanation:
The number of periods N = 9years(10 years minus 1 year ago)
Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = ?
Present value of the bond (PV) = $950.70
Future value of the bond(FV) = $1,000
Annual payment (PMT) = $90 (9% x $1,000)
Using a financial calculator to solve the problem ( BA II plus Texas instruments):
Yield to Maturity (I/Y) = 9.85%
Answer:
$50,000
Explanation:
Since the service year is for a period of two year beginning from January 1 2018,the fair value of the shares options would be recognized over the two years on straight line basis,in other words $50,000 is the compensation expense for each i.e $100,000/2.
The appropriate entries would be a credit to paid in capital-share options account and debit goes to compensation expense in both years.
For instance ,2018 entries would:
Dr compensation expense $50,000
Cr paid in capital shares options $50,000
Answer:The output will be $billion and the price level will increase.
Explanation:Long term accommodative policies by government causes a shift to the right of aggregate demand curve in response to the left shifting of the aggregate supply curve in the short run.
This change will definitely cause an increase in aggregate demand without a corresponding increase in aggregate supply to meet the demand.
In doing this the government aims to permanently higher prices in order to restore employment and output to it's original level.
Answer:d
Explanation: she should try to find ways to cut back on or cancel a remaining task
Answer:
A. 118%
Explanation:
22w= 26,
Hence:
The weight in the managed portfolio is
26/22
= 118%
Therefore the adjusted portfolio P* needed to calculate the M2 measure will have 118% invested in the managed portfolio and the rest in T-bills.