Answer:
A
Explanation:
To answer the question, we look at an extreme scenario of 0% interest rate and see the minimum repayment Jade will make on the loan taken
Therefore,
Interest Rate = 0%
This means that the loan to be paid will be calculated as follows
Monthly payments x 12 Months x 14 Years
= $195 x 12 months x 14 years = $32, 760
The meaning of this outcome is that the lower the interest rate to be paid, the higher the size of the loan, because at 2.9% the loan= $26,898.98 and at 0% rate the loan= $32, 760.
The conclusion therefore is a 2.7% interest rate which is lower than 2.9% but not as low as the extreme 0% will cause the loan amount to be higher than $26,898.98. This affirms option A.
Options B and C are wrong because 2.5% and 2.3% are lower than 2.9%, therefore, the loan amount will be higher. Option D is also wrong because a 3.1% interest rate is higher than 2.9%, therefore, the amount should be lower not higher than $26,898.98
Answer:
The correct option is D, a single organization without subdivisions or individual teams.
Explanation:
Typically organizations are divided along functions and divisions.
A functional structure consists of different departments such as production,marketing ,finance.supply chain,maintenance, human resources and so on,with each function saddled with distinct responsibilities and having its own performance metrics.
Under a divisional structure, the firm is divided into division based on location or products with each division having different functions under it.
However, the Japanese method does not support divisionalization or departmentalization, instead advocated for an organization where everyone irrespective of specialty is seen as a member of a single team
Answer:
C. moral hazard.
Explanation:
Moral hazard -
It is the condition , where the person take more risk , as he or she is aware that someone else need to bear the risk , is known as moral hazard .
In this case , one of the party can change the damage of other after any type of monetary transaction has occurred .
Hence , from the question ,
The statement given in the question , is about Moral hazard .
Answer:
Retained Earnings Balance at end of Year 1 = $360
Explanation:
First we need to determine the profit/loss for the year as part of the retained earnings calculation.
Lexington Company
Income Statement for the year ended - Year 1
Revenue Earned $3,200
Less Expenses ($2,420)
Net Income / (Loss) $780
Then we calculate the Retained Earnings Balance
Retained Earnings Statement
Beginning Retained Earnings Balance $ 0
Add Profit earned during the year $780
Less Dividends ($420)
Ending Retained Earnings Balance $360
Answer:
0.73
Explanation:
Given that
WACC = 11%
Tax rate = 34%
Cost of equity = 14.9 %
Cost of debt = 8.6%
Recall that
WACC = (cost of equity × % of equity) + (cost of debt × % of debt) + ( 1 - tax rate)
We are to find
Cost of debt and cost of equity
Let
Cost of debt be x
Cost of equity be (1 - x)
Thus,
0.11 = (1 - x)(0.149) + (x)(0.086)(1 - 0.34)
x = 0.4228
Therefore,
Debt-equity ratio
= Cost of debt/cost of equity
= 0.4228/(1 - 0.4228)
= 0.73
