Answer:
If RUS > RUK, then E < F ( C )
Explanation:
RUS = annual risk free rate in united states
RUK = annual risk free rate in United kingdom
F = futures price of $/BP for 1 year
E = spot exchange rate for $/BP
To get a higher the future price
this conditions must be met
The annual risk free rate of the united states must be higher than the annual risk free rate of the united kingdom. if this condition is met then the the British pound will have a forward premium ( F ) > ( E )
Answer:
187, 450.00
Explanation:
Cost of the asset : $ 200,000.00
Interest rate at 10 %
Payment per year = 32,550.00
First year total amount due = 10% plus asset cost
= ($200,000x 10/100)= 200,000
=$20,000+200 000
=$220,000.00
After deduction = $220,000- 32, 550
=$ 187, 450.00
Answer:
The answer is A) $2,000
Explanation:
According to the IRS Publication 525 (2018), Taxable and Nontaxable Income
<em>"</em><em><u>If you receive tangible personal property (other than cash, a gift certificate, or an equivalent item) as an award for length of service</u></em><em> or safety achievement, you generally can </em><em><u>exclude its value from your income</u></em><em>. However, the amount you can exclude is limited to your employer's cost and </em><em><u>can’t be more than $1,600</u></em><em> ($400 for awards that aren’t qualified plan awards) for all such awards you receive during the year. Your employer can tell you whether your award is a qualified plan award. Your employer must make the award as part of a meaningful presentation, under conditions and circumstances that don’t create a significant likelihood of it being disguised pay." </em>
Ed has to include the $2,000 he received as income but the $250 watch can be excluded.
Answer:
Dividend paid = (5%× 10,000 × $10) = $5000.
Explanation:
<em>Preference shares entitles the holders to participate in a fixed dividend out of the profit made by the company. The divide is always a fixed percentage of the nominal value of the preference shares</em>
It can be cumulative and non-accumulate.
Cumulative <em>simply implies that should the company misses the payment of dividend in a particular year such unpaid dividend would be carried carried forward and paid in arrears in the following year/</em>
Non-cumulative i<em>s the exact opposite of the case . Here, unpaid dividends are not paid in arrears in fact such are forfeited for life.</em>
Dividend in Year 1
Dividend paid in Year 1 was $ 4000 but ought to be $5,000 (5%× 10,000 × $10). An arrear of $1000
Dividend in Year 2
Dividend paid = (5%× 10,000 × $10) = $5000.
Note that the unpaid dividend of $1,000 in year 1 is lost forever
Well balanced employees can be more productive, they can be more stable and stay on their jobs longer, and if they like their jobs, they will be satisfied. Your answer would be D! The reason why is that the other answer choices cover what a satisfied employee would do.
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<span>Have a nice day! :)</span>
