Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
x-intercept -> when y = 0
f(x) x-intercept -> (1 , 0)
g(x) x-intercept -> (-1 , 0)
y-intercept -> when x = 0
f(x) y-intercept -> (0 , -1)
g(x) y-intercept -> (0 , 1)
The x-intercept of f(x) is greater than the x-intercept of g(x)
The y-intercept of g(x) is greater than the y-intercept of f(x)
So from the options, the answer is D. The x-intercept of f(x) is greater than the x-intercept of g(x)
Answer:
43.013
Step-by-step explanation:
Theres a nine in the thousands place it has to be 5 or higher to round so its high enough.
Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:
Given (Omitted from the question)



Solving (a): 
This is calculated using:


<em>We used Total - 1 because it is a probability without replacement</em>
So, we have:





Solving (b) 
This is calculated as:








Answer:
By definition, the reference angle is an acute, hence positive angle that the terminal side of a given angle makes with the x-axis.
In this case, the acute angle is 40º.