I believe that the answer would be D. According to the United States Courts:
"Nor does this conclusion by any means suppose a superiority of the judicial to the legislative power. It only supposed that the power of the people is superior to both; and that where the will of the legislature, declared in its statutes, stands in opposition to that of the people, declared in the Constitution, the judges ought to be governed by the latter rather than the former. They ought to regulate their decisions by the fundamental laws, rather than by those which are not fundamental." (Quoted directly from the source. Link: https://www.uscourts.gov/educational-resources/educational-activities/overview-rule-law)
