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sveta [45]
3 years ago
15

Paladin Furnishings generated $2 million in sales during 2016, and its year-end total assets were $1.7 million. Also, at year-en

d 2016, current liabilities were $500,000, consisting of $200,000 of notes payable, $200,000 of accounts payable, and $100,000 of accrued liabilities. Looking ahead to 2017, the company estimates that its assets must increase by $0.85 for every $1.00 increase in sales. Paladin's profit margin is 5%, and its retention ratio is 55%. How large of a sales increase can the company achieve without having to raise funds externally
Business
1 answer:
professor190 [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The large of a sales increase can the company achieve without having to raise funds externally is $81,784

Explanation:

In order to calculate How large of a sales increase can the company achieve without having to raise funds externally we would have to calculate the following:

sales increase=Sales*growth rate

Sales=$2,000,000

growth rate=(Profit Margin * Retention ratio * Sales) /( Total year end Assets - Accounts payable - Accrued liabilities) - (Profit Margin * Retention ratio * Sales)

growth rate= (0.05 * 0.35 *  2,000,000 ) / (1,700,000 - 200,000 - 100,000) - ( 0.05 * 0.55 x 2,000,000)

growth rate=$55,000/$1,345,000

growth rate=4.089%

Therefore, sales increase=$2,000,000*4.089%

sales increase=$81,784

The large of a sales increase can the company achieve without having to raise funds externally is $81,784

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You currently own shares in Buckeye Mutual Fund (BMF). Your broker calls and recommends buying shares in a small-capitalization
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

Option D is the correct option

Explanation:

To find the optimal fund to combine with risk free rate of return, we will use Coefficient of variation,

Coefficient of variation(CoV) = Standard Deviation/Expected Return

CoV of Buckeye = 14%/20% = 0.7

CoV of Wolverine = 11%/12% = 0.9167

So, higher the CoV higher the risk, we will take Buckeye to combine with Risk Free Return.

Hence, Option A

- Required target return of portfolio = 22%

Risk Free return = 8%

Buckeye Return = 20%

Let the weight of Buckeye be X ,& weight of risk free be (1-X)

Required return = (WRF)*(RRF) + (WB)*(RB)

22 = (1-X)(8) + (X)(20)

22 = 8-8X + 20X

14 = 12X

X = 1.17

SO, weight of Buckeye is 1.17 or 117%

while weight of Risk free is -0.17 (1-1.17) or -17%

Hence, ans is OPTION D

7 0
2 years ago
PLEASE HELP ASAP!!!! CORRECT ANSWERS ONLY PLEASE!!!!
inessss [21]
Omg! Do you do k12? Me too!
Financing is usually investing in businesses. So looking at the answers. . . 
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8 0
3 years ago
As the dominant member of the channel of distribution, Coca-Cola holds a lot of power in the relationship with independent groce
irakobra [83]

Answer:

System of Administered vertical marketing

Explanation:

Vertical marketing system is the system of cooperation among the several levels of the distributed channel. In this system, the members work together in order to promote the efficiency as well as economies of scale in the direction products are promoted to the end users.

Administered Vertical Marketing System is the one of the kind of vertical marketing system, which is a system that is coordinated among the distribution channel organisation, in that the flow of products from producer to the customer is controlled through size and power of one member of the system.

So, in this case, dominant member has the power of controlling the store. Therefore, it states the example of administered vertical marketing system.

6 0
3 years ago
On December 31, Lowland, Inc., converts its $900,000 par value bonds (carrying value also $900,000) into 90,000 shares of $6 par
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

Lowland, Inc., entry to record this conversion includes a

Dr Bonds Payable $900,000

Cr Common Stock $540,000

( 90,000 shares x $6 par value per share)

Cr Paid-In Capital in Excess of Par Value $360,000

($900,000 -$540,000)

Explanation:

Since Lowland, Inc. converted its $900,000 par value bonds and carrying value also $900,000) into 90,000 shares of $6 par value common stock which means we have to Debit Bonds Payable with $900,000 and Credit Common Stock with $540,000 which is

( 90,000 shares x $6 par value per share) , then Credit Paid-In Capital in Excess of Par Value for $360,000 which is ( value of bonds converted of $900,000 - par value of shares of common stock issued of $540,000).

5 0
3 years ago
When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, an increase in the money supply shifts the money su
Triss [41]

When the money market is drawn with the value of money on the vertical axis, an increase in the money supply shifts the money supply curve to the

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What does money market mean?

The money market refers to trading in very short-term debt investments. At the wholesale level, it involves large-volume trades between institutions and traders. At the retail level, it includes money market mutual funds bought by individual investors and money market accounts opened by bank customers.

What is the features of money market?

It is market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money. It deals with financial assets having a maturity period up to one year only. It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost

What Is Price Level?

Price level is the average of current prices across the entire spectrum of goods and services produced in an economy. In more general terms, price level refers to the price or cost of a good, service, or security in the economy.

Learn more about price level:

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4 0
1 year ago
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