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Sidana [21]
3 years ago
7

In the short-run an increase in the costs of production makes a. output rise and prices fall. b. output and prices fall. c. outp

ut fall and prices rise. d. output and prices rise.
Business
1 answer:
gtnhenbr [62]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C) Output fall and prices rise

Explanation:

In an aggregate supply, aggregate demand model, price level is the Y axis, and output is the X axis. Supply is positively related with price: the higher the price, the more firms produce.

However, to produce someting, firms need to employ the factors of production: land, labor and capital. The wages firms pay to workers, and the rent firms pay for land and capital are the production costs. If these costs rise, then, the products will become more expensive.

This increase in price will be met with lower demand; less customers will be willing to purchase the product, and therefore, the firms will start producing less until reaching a new equilibrium.

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Friendly's quick loans, inc., offers you $5.25 today but you must repay $6.45 when you get your paycheck in one week (or else).
LenaWriter [7]
For simplicity, we will assume 52 weeks in a year (instead of 365 days).
The rate of interest per week actually charged is
6.45/5.25-1
=1.2285714-1
=0.22857142857
=22.85714%

Effective Annual Rate (EAR) is obtained by <em>compounding</em> the weekly rate for one year (52 weeks)
EAR=(1+i)^n-1
=(1+.228571428571428)^52-1
=44546.2997
=4454629.97%
note: most calculators may not display this value with sufficient accuracy.

The corresponding APR is obtained by <em>multiplying</em> the weekly rate by 52
APR=52*(6.45/5.25-1)
=52(6.45/5.25-1)
=11.885714
=1188.57%


8 0
3 years ago
Proof that the dollar amount of the debits equals the dollar amount of the credits in the ledger means a.all accounts have their
Pani-rosa [81]

Answer:

c.only that the debit dollar amounts equal the credit dollar amounts

Explanation:

For recording the business transactions, the first step is journalizing through recording. After that we post these to their respective account which we called ledger accounts.

The motive of recording the business transactions is to equate the debit and credit sections as per the double accounting through which the financial statements should be verified, and correct in all aspects.

6 0
3 years ago
You are called by Tim Duncan of Spurs Co. on July 16 and asked to prepare a claim for insurance as a result of a theft that took
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

$23,003

Explanation:

Computation for the claim against the insurance company.

Using this formula

Claim against insurance company = Total cost of goods available for sales - Cost of goods sold - Owned inventory on hand on July 16

Let plug in the formula

Claim against insurance company= ($41,010 + 90,490) - [($119,400 - $3,960)*100/140)] - ($33,210- $7,170)

Claim against insurance company= $131,500 - $82,457 - $26,040

Claim against insurance company= $23,003

Therefore the claim against the insurance company is $23,003

4 0
3 years ago
An American-style call option with six months to maturity has a strike price of $35. The underlying stock now sells for $43. The
Travka [436]

Answer:

a) $8

b) $4

c) Decrease

Explanation:

Background.

A call option as you probably know, is an agreement to buy an asset on or before a particular day at a price already determined in the agreement.

a) the Intrinsic value of the option is the market price minus the strike price.

Intrinsic Value = Market Price - Strike price

= $43 - $35

= $8 per share.

It is worthy of note that for an option, of the intrinsic value dips into negative figures it is just said to be 0.

b) To calculate the time value, we subtract the intrinsic value from the call premium

= Call Premium - Intrinsic value

= $12 - $8

= $4

c) The call option has 6 months to maturity and the dividends are to come in 3 months. Share prices usually drop after a dividend has been paid so because the call option matures in 6 months, the price of the call option will DECREASE owing to the Expected drop in stock price.

8 0
3 years ago
Consider a firm with a contract to sell an asset for $154,000 five years from now. The asset costs $90,000 to produce today. Giv
horsena [70]

Answer:

the firm will have a loss of 6.414,97‬

Break-even rate = 11.34%

Explanation:

We calcualte the present value of a lump sum to know the present sale value:

\frac{Nominal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Nominal:  154,000

time               5 years

rate               0.13

\frac{154000}{(1 + 0.13)^{5} } = PV  

PV   83,585.03

the current sale price        83,585.03

given a cost of               <u>   (90,000)      </u>

the firm will have a loss of 6.414,97‬

To break event the present value should be 90,000:

\frac{154000}{(1 + r)^{5} } = 90,000

\sqrt{5}{\frac{154000}{90,000}} -= (1 + r)  

rate = 0.113411345 = 11.34%

6 0
4 years ago
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