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Makovka662 [10]
3 years ago
10

As originally written, the First Amendment stated that freedom of speech, religion, press, and assembly could not be violated by

? Select one: a. Congress. b. Federal or state governments. c. the President. d. anyone.
World Languages
2 answers:
lubasha [3.4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<u>Option-(B):</u>  The First Amendment stated that freedom of speech, religion, press, and assembly could not be violated by <u>the Federal or state governments.</u>

Explanation:

The first amendment: In order to have a free state, where all the individuals will not be characterized upon there races and on there background but they will be treated as equal citizens of the US. The Federal government was prohibited to have any offensive ruling against any person based upon racial or religious slurs. As each person will be provided by the basic right to live as according to there religion and cast inside the US.

Evgen [1.6K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The first amendment stated that freedom of speech,religion,press and assembly could not be violated by the Congress,option A

Explaination

The below is explicitly stated in the First Amendment

” Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances"

Federal or State governments cannot be correct option because the First Amendment was initially applicable to only Federal government.

The First Amendment was extended to State government through court case of  Gitlow v. New York (1925) where the dictates of Fourteenth Amendment were used to apply First Amendment to State governments

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The 1st Amendment states, quote:

<em> Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof...</em>

Now, this may be seen as the government not being able to interfere with banning the practice of human sacrifice. However, based on <em>Reynolds v. U.S. </em>(1878), The Supreme Court ruled that religious duty is not a defense against criminal indictment.

On top of that, human sacrifice in the modern world is deemed as a murder, as the victim is typically not consenting. If, however, they are, it may still be deemed as manslaughter. Under <em>Section 18 of the US Code 1111</em>, Murder is defined as, quote <em>the unlawful killing of a human being with malice aforethought... or premeditated design unlawfully and maliciously to effect death of any human being other than him who is killed</em>. (Section a, Section 18, U.S. Code 1111).

Within the religious liberties that are protected by federal law, it is stated under <em>Executive Order 13798 </em>(82 FR 21675 - Promoting Free Speech and Religious Liberty). The most important part to look at from this order is section 2, which states that <em>The free exercise of religion includes the right to act or abstain from action in accordance from one's religious beliefs</em>, and in section 10, which states that the given act <em>prohibits the federal government from substantially burdening any aspect of religious observance or practice, </em><em>unless imposition of that burden on a particular religious adherent satisfies strict scrutiny. </em> (Emphasis added, Federal Law Protections for Religious Liberty, RFRA 1993). In this case, the scrutiny is satisfied as the religious practice breaks US Code 1111 Section 18, as stated above. Therefore, <em>the government can be allowed to interfere with this particular practice. </em>

<u>Laws & rights in use in this case, as well as court decisions:</u>

- 1st Amendment, U.S. Constitution

- <em>Reynolds v. U.S. </em>(1878) - Chief Justice Morrison Waite.

- Section 18, US Code 1111

- Executive Order 13798

- Federal Law Protections for Religious Liberty, Religious Freedom Restoration act, 1993.

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Learn more about Religious Freedom, here:

brainly.com/question/4773712 - Freedom of religious worship is guaranteed by...

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