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g100num [7]
3 years ago
9

Consider the multifactor APT with two factors. Stock A has an expected return of 17.6%, a beta of 1.45 on factor 1, and a beta o

f .86 on factor 2. The risk premium on the factor 1 portfolio is 3.2%. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. What is the risk-premium on factor 2 if no arbitrage opportunities exist?
Business
1 answer:
ehidna [41]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The risk premium on factor 2 = 9.26%.

Explanation:

Let us denote the risk premium of factor 2 as x

Below is the formula we can use to calculate the risk premium of factor 2.

Expected return on stock = (Beta (factor 1)* expected return of 1) +(beta of 2x * risk free reate)

17.6% = (1.45*3.2%) + 0.86x+5%

17.6 = 4.64 + 0.86x+5%

17.6 - 4.64 - 5= 0.86x

7.96 = 0.86x

x = 7.96/0.86 =9.2558

The risk premium on factor 2 = 9.26%.

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Which of these components does a business exclude from its net income under “operating surplus”?
irga5000 [103]

Answer:

Depreciation

non-cash charges

interest on loan

taxes

Explanation:

This is according standard proforma for preparing cash flow statement,interest and taxes are later brought back into the computation for instance interest relates to financing activities while actual tax paid is deducted before arriving at cash generated from operations

3 0
3 years ago
A husband and wife have a joint account with a member firm. The wife calls the registered representative with instructions to li
natulia [17]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Accept and execute the order as given. Even though one may be inclined to think otherwise, or want to think otherwise. The right course of action is to accept the given request, and treat it as such. Because the couple owns the account together, and they both operate it. So, either of them can actually call the representative and give instructions to them to be carried out.

8 0
2 years ago
The existing balance in Allowance for Doubtful Accounts is considered in computing bad debts expense in the A. direct write-off
AlexFokin [52]

The correct answer is choice b - the percentage of receivables basis.

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8 0
2 years ago
Associated Breweries is planning to market alcohol-free beer. To finance the venture it proposes to make a rights issue at $10 o
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

Number of new shares:

= 100,000×(1÷2)

= 50,000

Amount of new investment:

= 50,000×$10

= $500,000

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= $4,500,000

Total number of shares after issue:

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3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
E-Eyes has a new issue of preferred stock it calls 20/20 preferred. The stock will pay a $20 dividend per year, but the first di
brilliants [131]

Answer:

$25.86.

Explanation:

To address this problem we first calculate the present value of all dividend received at time t = 20, then we discount that sum to time t = 0 (now).

The cashflow pattern of this preferred stock is similar to perpetuty.

Stock value at time t = 20 = Dividend/Required rate of return = 20/10.5% = 190.48

Stock value at time t = 0 = (Stock value at time t = 20)/(1 + Required rate of return)^20 = 190.48/(1 + 10.5%)^20 = 25.86.

6 0
2 years ago
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