Answer:
D) +25%.
Explanation:
If A offers 1/2 a share per 1 share of B, it means that the value of B's shares will increase from $20 to $25 (= $50 x 1/2). This $5 increase represents a 25% increase in wealth {= [($25 - $20) / $20] x 100}.
The price of the stock represents the wealth of the stockholders, since a stockholder that had 100 shares previously owned $2,000 in stocks, but as the price increases, the stockholder's wealth increases to $2,500.
A sophisticated sales test might involve manipulating an advertising variable like schedule or copy through cable systems, and observing the affects on purchasing at local supermarkets.
What is advertising variable?
- Although advertising expenditures can change greatly, they are not regarded as variable costs.
- Instead, marketing costs are fixed, meaning they don't change based on how many goods or services you offer to customers.
Why is marketing considered a variable cost?
- Businesses may set aside a specific amount for advertising within their fixed marketing budget, despite having a fixed budget for marketing.
- Advertising is therefore a current expense rather than a fixed one. Therefore, whether it be print or online, businesses must spend money on advertising.
Learn more about advertising a variable cost
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Answer:
The answer is D.
Explanation:
Total earnings in 4 years
= 6000 + 3000 + 6000 - 2000
= $13,000
Ending retained earnings after 4 years
= $10,000
Total amount paid out as dividend in 4 years
= $13,000 - 10,000
= $3,000
Average amount of dividends paid per year
= $3,000/4
= $750
Answer:
Explanation:
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of equipment, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value - fair value
where,
Book value = Equipment cost - accumulated depreciation
= $672,000 - $174,000
= $498,000
And, the fair value is $384,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= $498,000 - $384,00
= $114,000
Now the journal entry would be
Loss on impairment A/c Dr $114,000
To Accumulated depreciation A/c $114,000
(Being the impairment loss is recorded)
Answer:
3.5%
Explanation:
We will apply asset pricing model to calculate cost of equity (required rate of return). The capital asset pricing model is stated as below:
Cost of equity = Risk-free rate + Beta x Market risk premium
Putting all the number together, we have:
Cost of equity (Beale) = 5.5% + 1.8 x (9% - 5.5%) = 11.8%
Cost of equity (Foley) = 5.5% + 0.8 x (9% - 5.5%) = 8.3%
Cost of equity (Beale) - Cost of equity (Foley) = 11.8% - 8.3% = 3.5%
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<em>Note: You can also do quick calculation as below:</em>
<em>Cost of equity (Beale) - Cost of equity (Foley) = (Beta of Beale - Bete of Foley) x Market risk premium = (1.8 - 0.8) x (9% - 5.5%) = 3.5%</em>
