The answer is definitely 100% definitely 5
Lady Macbeth's actions do not reflect the traditional gender roles of the period in which the play was written.
<h3>What were the gender roles at the time?</h3>
- Women were extremely submissive to their husbands.
- Men were responsible for running a wedding.
- Women were not dominant figures and had to deal with domestic affairs.
- Men were solely responsible for matters such as politics, monarchy, battles, among other matters.
Lady Macbeth proves to be a very dominant figure. She is responsible for determining what her husband should do, punishing him when he wants to do something different. In this case, we can say that she is completely out of the gender roles of the time.
More information about "Macbeth" at the link:
brainly.com/question/3562297
I feel that it is the first one, she is losing interest, because a lot of the rest of the story suggests she is not all the interested with him.
Hope this helps, if not, comment below please!!!
Answer:
Personal experience
Explanation:
Personal experience because it can shape someone's vices or thoughts on a specific topic more than anything. Hope this helped
