Question

Consider two functions: g(x)=x2 and the linear function ​f(x)​ with slope 1 and y-intercept of 0.

Answer 1

ANSWER

The correct answers are option B and C

EXPLANATION

A linear function with slope $m=1$ and y - intercept $0$ has equation, $f(x)=x$

Option A

$f(-1)=-1$

$g(-1)=(-1)^2=1$

Therefore $f(-1) \ne g(-1)$

Option B

$f(1)=1$

$g(1)=(1)^2=1$

Therefore $f(1) = g(1)$

Option C

$f(0.5)=0.5$

$g(0.5)=(0.5)^2=0.25$

Therefore $f(x) > g(x)$

on $(0,1)$ See graph also.

Option D

At y-intercept, $x=0$

This implies that,

$f(0)=0$

$g(0)=(0)^2=0$

Therefore g(x) does not have a greater y-intercept.