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adoni [48]
3 years ago
15

Units to Earn Target Income Head-First Company plans to sell 5,000 bicycle helmets at $75 each in the coming year. Unit variable

cost is $45 (includes direct materials, direct labor, variable factory overhead, and variable selling expense). Total fixed cost equals $49,500 (includes fixed factory overhead and fixed selling and administrative expense).Required:
Be sure to read the instructions on each panel for additional guidance.


1. Calculate the number of helmets Head-First must sell to earn operating income of $81,900.

2. Check your answer by preparing a contribution margin income statement based on the number of units calculated
Business
1 answer:
ANTONII [103]3 years ago
6 0

Explanation:

1. The computation of the number of helmets sell to earn operating income is shown below:

= (Fixed expenses + target profit) ÷ (Contribution margin per unit)  

where,  

Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable expense per unit

= $75 - $40

= $30

So, the number of helmets sold is

= ($49,500 + $81,900) ÷ ($30)

= 4,380 helmets

2. And , the contribution margin income statement is presented below:

Sales (4,380 helmets × $75)                     $328,500

Less: Variable cost (4,380 helmets × $45)  ($197,100)  

Contribution margin $131,400

Less: Total fixed cost (49,500)  

Net income                $81,900

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Dragon Sports Inc. manufactures and sells two products, baseball bats and baseball gloves. The fixed costs are $57,000, and the
gulaghasi [49]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Contribution Margin for Bat

= $50 - $50

= $0

Contribution Margin for Gloves = $100 - $80

= $20

Now  

Overall Contribution Margin = (0 ×70%) + ($20 × 30%)

= $0 + $6

= $6

Now  

A. Break even sales = Fixed cost ÷ contribution margin

= $57,000 ÷  $6

= 9,500

B.Baseball bats = 9,500 × 70% =6,650

Baseball Gloves = 9,500 × 30% = 2,850

7 0
2 years ago
The town of Chester has an economy composed entirely of two equally sized food companies. Both company Q and company R produce p
ExtremeBDS [4]

Answer:

C) abandon the production of jam to fully specialize in the production of peanut butter and then trade with Company Q for jam.

Explanation:

According to different theories about trade specialization, a company or even a country should specialize in producing only those products that they can make better than their competition, i.e. have a comparative or absolute advantage in their production.  

In this case, since Company R has a comparative advantage in the production of peanut butter, it should specialize in producing only that. In case they need jam, they should trade with Company Q in order to get some jam. Eventually Company Q  will only produce jam since they have a comparative advantage in jam production.

8 0
3 years ago
List one tip someone should follow before investing their money and explain.
jok3333 [9.3K]
You should invest your money to save for future projects or maybe you need it for a life emergency.
3 0
3 years ago
According to Brynjolfsson and McAfee (2014), in winer-take-all markets, the compensation (e.g., revenues) is mainly determined b
podryga [215]

Answer: The correct answer is "relative perfomance".

Explanation: According to Brynjolfsson and McAfee (2014), in winer-take-all markets, the compensation (e.g., revenues) is mainly determined by <u>relative perfomance.</u>

A type of market in which the winner takes everything clearly implies that the best competitors are those who take a large proportion of rewards while the worst little or nothing. To say that it is determined by their relative performance, refers to the subjects receiving rewards based on their performance in relation to the other competitors.

5 0
3 years ago
Assume a major investment service has just given Oasis Electronics its highest investment rating, along with a strong buy recomm
ruslelena [56]

Answer:

Share price : $ 56.23

Explanation:

CAPM

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.11

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.06

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.64

Ke= 0.05 + 1.64 (0.06)

Ke 0.14840

Now, we solve for the present value of the future dividends:

year   dividend*     present value**

1  2.91                 2.53

2  3.31                 2.51

3  3.78         2.49

4  4.31                 2.48

4   80.38          46.22

TOTAL            56.23

*Dividends will be calculate as the previous year dividends tiems the grow rate

during the first four year is 14%

then, we calcualte the present value of all the future dividends growing at 9% using the dividend grow model:

\frac{D_1}{K_e-g}

(4.31 x 1.09) / (0.1484 - 0.09) = 80.38

Then we discount eahc using the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Cashflow}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

We discount using the CAPM COst of Capital of 14.84%

last we add them all to get the share price: $ 56.23

4 0
3 years ago
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