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Maslowich
3 years ago
8

​ An advantage of a firm pursuing multiple segment specialization is that:

Business
2 answers:
Ber [7]3 years ago
7 0
An advantage of a firm pursuing multiple segment specialization is that IT CREATES THE LARGEST POTENTIAL MARKET FOR THE FIRM'S PRODUCTS OR SERVICES. Multiple segment specialization is a marketing technique whereby a company tries to gain customers from more than one type of market for the same product. The principal reason for using this strategy is to increase the number of customers using one's products. 
geniusboy [140]3 years ago
6 0

A preferred position of a firm seeking after various fragment specialization is that IT CREATES THE LARGEST POTENTIAL MARKET FOR THE FIRM'S PRODUCTS OR SERVICES.  

Further Explanation:  

Multi segment specialization:  

A showcasing technique when an organization attempts to pick up clients from more than one kind of market for a similar item and utilizations, consequently, various sorts publicizing, which can be expensive additionally called separated promoting.  

multi segment advertising:  

A separated advertising technique is one in which the organization chooses to give separate contributions to each extraordinary market portion that it targets. It is likewise called multi fragment showcasing. Each portion is focused with a specific goal in mind, as the organization gives novel advantages to various fragments.  

item specialization:

Item specialization is one methodology an organization can use to target explicit client market sections. This methodology works for organizations that represent considerable authority in a fantastic item and can redo it to fit the particular needs of various sections.  

Purpose of specialization:  

Specialization is a strategy for creation whereby an element centers around the generation of a constrained extent of merchandise to pick up a more noteworthy level of proficiency. Numerous nations, for instance, have some expertise in creating the products and ventures that are local to their piece of the world, and they exchange for different merchandise and enterprises.  

Subject: business

Level: High School

Keywords: Multi segment specialization, multi segment advertising, item specialization, Purpose of specialization.

Related links:

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A manufacturing company that has only one product has established the following standards for its variable manufacturing overhea
n200080 [17]

Answer:

 Variable overhead efficiency variance $ 8,018 <u> </u>Unfavorable

Explanation:

<em>Variable overhead efficiency variance: Variable overhead efficiency variance aims to determine whether or not their exist savings or extra cost incurred on variable overhead as a result of workers being faster or slower that expected.  </em>

Since the variable overhead is charged using labour hours, any amount by which the actual labour hours differ from the standard allowable hours would result in a variance  

                                                                                      Hours

2,700 units should have taken (2,700 × 3.20)           8640

but did take  (actual hours)                                   <u>      9,400</u>

Efficiency variance in hours                                      760 unfavorable

standard variable overhead cost per hour           <u>$10.55</u>

Variable overhead efficiency variance                  $<u> 8,018  </u>Unfavorable

 Variable overhead efficiency variance $ 8,018 <u> </u>Unfavorable

8 0
3 years ago
Caliber Corp. currently pays no dividends because it requires its internally generated funds be used to fund a research intensiv
Andreyy89

Answer:

Do =  $2.00

D1= Do(1+g)1 =  $2(1+0.2)1 = $2.40

D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88

D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456

D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472

D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664

PHASE 1

V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5

V1 = 2.40/(1+0.15) + 2.88/(1+0.15)2 + 3.456/(1+0.15)3 + 4.1472/(1+0.15)4 + 4.97664/(1+0.15)5

V1 = $2.0870 + $2.1777 +  $2.2723 + $2.3712 + $2.4742

V1 = $11.3824

PHASE 2

V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      

V2 = $4.97664(1+0.02)/(0.15-0.02)(1+0.02)5      

V2 = $5.0762/0.1435

V2 = $35.3742

Po = V1 + V2

Po = $11.3824 + $35.3742

Po = $46.76

Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.

In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.

5 0
3 years ago
Danielle has to send a message to her manager. It is taking her extra time to draft the message because of the number of edits s
alex41 [277]

The type of communication that Danielle is carrying out is written communication. She is editing the written message to be sent to her manager.

<h3>What is Written Communication?</h3>

A 'Written Communication' refers to the process of sending messages, orders, or commands in writing thru letters, circulars, manuals, reports, telegrams, workplace memos, bulletins, and many more.

It is a proper approach to conversation and is much less flexible in nature.

Therefore, The type of communication that Danielle is carrying out is written communication. She is editing the written message to be sent to her manager.

learn more about written communication here:

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8 0
2 years ago
On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible. What entry should be recorded on February
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

On February 1, a customer's account balance of $2,700 was deemed to be uncollectible.

The entry to be recorded on February 1 to record the write-off assuming the company uses the allowance method is:

Debit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $2,700; credit Accounts Receivable $2,700.

Explanation:

Using the allowance method, every bad debt entry is first reflected in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts before it is taken to the bad debt expense account.

The entries above reduce the Accounts Receivable account by the amount of the write-off and reduces the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts by the same amount.  Any recovery of written off debt is also treated in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts and the Accounts Receivable account in revised order.  This method is unlike the direct write-off method.  With the direct write-off method, the Accounts Receivable is credited with the amount of the write-off and the write-off is expensed in the Bad Debts Expense account directly.

5 0
3 years ago
By shutting​ down, a firm A. stops receiving revenue and is stuck with its fixed costs. B. can avoid paying taxes on its previou
wel

Answer:

option A

Explanation: A firm cannot avoid paying taxes on previous profits as these profits were earned before the shutting down period and generally the taxes on profits for current period  are paid at a later period. Thus option B is incorrect.

.

Revenue is the total income that a business gets from its normal operations and variable cost is the cost that changes with the level of output. Thus, there will be no revenue and also variable cost.  Hence option C is incorrect.

.

Sunk cost are the costs that cannot be recovered and are already been incurred.So a company can avoid its variable cost by shutting down but not its   sunk cost. Hence option D is incorrect.

.

Fixed costs are the costs that are independent of the level of output. Therefore, a company after shutting down will not receive revenue but will have to bear fixed cost. Hence option A is correct.

4 0
4 years ago
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