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evablogger [386]
3 years ago
15

Spielberg Inc. signed a $170,000 noninterest-bearing note due in five years from a production company eager to do business. Comp

arable borrowings have carried an 11% interest rate. What is the value of this debt at its inception?
A. $210,900B. $190,000C. $112,755D. $101,582
Business
1 answer:
GaryK [48]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$100,890

Explanation:

To determine the value of the debt we must calculate the present value of the note:

present value = future value of the note / (1 + interest rate)⁵

present value = $170,000 / (1 + 11%)⁵ = $170,000 / 1.11⁵ = $170,000 / 1.685

present value = $100,890

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Suppose that Steve heads to the local hamburger shop with $3, expecting to spend $2 for his favorite burger and $1 for French fr
PtichkaEL [24]

Answer:

Income effect

Explanation:

The effect is because the customer purchasing power has been changed due to which he is now able to buy more to fulfill his needs and wants. The income effect occurs due to two reasons.

Number 1. The real income of the person has been increased which means his purchasing power has been increased. This means previously you were earning $2000 a month and now you are earning $10000 a month. Now you can buy New Iphone every month because your real income has been increased and this has increased your purchasing power.

Number 2. The price of the product has been fallen and now it is in range of the purchasing power of the customer. This means that if Iphones 11 are available at $100 then everybody buy Iphone 11. This is because the product is in the range of purchasing power of greater number of customers.

5 0
3 years ago
A fee is paid a. for each overdraft. c. monthly to have overdraft. b. for the first overdraft. d. annually to have overdraft.
larisa [96]
B. for the first overdraft
3 0
3 years ago
Targaryen Corporation has a target capital structure of 65 percent common stock, 5 percent preferred stock, and 30 percent debt.
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

  • a. What is the company’s WACC?

R_Wacc =  13% (65%) + 5% (5%) + 6% (30%) * (1-0,25) =  10,05%

  • b. What is the aftertax cost of debt?

The aftertax cost of debt is:    

R_Debt :  (1 - 0,25) x 6% = 4,50%

Explanation:

The WACC it's defined by the formula :

WACC: E/V*Re + D/V*Rd *(1-0,25)

Re:   13,00%  Cost of Common Equity    

Re:   5,00%  Cost of Preferred STOCK  

Re:   6%     Cost of Debt  

E/V:   65%   Percentage of financing that is Common Equity  

PS/V:   5%     Percentage of financing that is Preferred Stock  

DB/V:   30%    Percentage of financing that is Debt  

Tax:  25%    Corporate tax rate  

Now we have all of the components to calculate the WACC.

The WACC is:      

R_Wacc =  13% (65%) + 5% (5%) + 6% (30%)*(1-0,25) =  10,05%  

The aftertax cost of debt is:    

R_Debt :  (1 - 0,25) x 6% = 4,50%

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an example of an operational risk for a company that manufactures automobiles?A. A state tax increase
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:C. Damage to completed cars held on a storage lot

Explanation:

Operational risk are the hazards and the uncertainties that are faced by companies in the day to day activities. It may be caused as a result of system failure or manufacturing components.

An example of operational risk for a company that manufactures automobiles would be damage to completed cars held on a storage lot.

7 0
3 years ago
Physical capital differs from raw materials in the sense that raw materials A. have a longer useful life in production B. are co
Komok [63]

Answer:

D. are used up in production

Explanation:

Raw materials can be seen as the "ingredients" required to produce a good and, thus, are consumable (used up in production). Physical capital refers to lasting goods that are assist the production process like buildings or machinery and are not consumable.

4 0
3 years ago
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