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storchak [24]
3 years ago
10

At age 55, Ellen separated from service with her former employer. She rolled over $19,000, the entire balance of her 401(k), int

o an IRA. Then in December of the same year, Ellen had to take $2,150 out of this new IRA in order to pay her bills.
How much of her distributions are subject to the early distribution penalty?
Business
1 answer:
Yuki888 [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$2,150

Explanation:

When taking money out, it is a compulsory requirement to pay an early withdrawal or distribution penalty, before the age of 59½ years.

In the case of Ellen, she's not up to 59½ years old, she's still 55.

The age 55 exception is an exception that allows people not to pay 10% early distribution penalty for retirement plan distributions before they get to 59½ years old.

Taking IRA from an account (401(k), in this case) into another account (an IRA) by someone like Ellen who is not up to 59½ years old is not considered a distribution, so she is totally free to change financial institutions at any time without worrying about a penalty tax.

So, $2,150 of her early distribution is subjected to early distribution penalty but she won't be penalised

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activities. In this chapter, you will learn about these two important management activities. ... To implement organizational change, managers must work to overcome that resistance ... Second, Kane's salespeople were.
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3 years ago
If the mortgage loan is 80% of the appraised value of a house, and the interest rate of 8% amounts to $460 interest for the firs
irga5000 [103]

The appraised value of the house is after calculating interest and the value is $86,250.

<h3>What is appraised value?</h3>

A qualified appraiser or valuer's assessment of the assessed value of the real property is what is meant by an appraised value or mortgage valuation. It is typically utilized as a pre-qualification criterion and risk-based pricing component in connection with a financial institution's issuance of mortgage loans.

Calculation of appraised value of the house:

  1. First, calculate the yearly interest. $5,520 in interest total every year ($460 x 12).
  2. Take a loan for $69,000 at an interest rate of.08 on $5,520.
  3. Next, subtract $86,250 from $69,000 to get the appraised value.

Hence, the total appraisal value is $86,250.

Learn more about appraised value :

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6 0
1 year ago
What is the difference between patronage and the merit principle?
alexdok [17]
Patronage principle based its hiring and promotion system on political reasons while the merit principle employed the idea that hiring should be based on entrance examination and promotion. One of the major disadvantage of the patronage principle is that, it may end up employing people who are not qualify for the job. Merit principle choose based on qualifications. 
5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that a profit-maximizing monopoly firm undergoes a substantial technological change that reduces its marginal and averag
Svetradugi [14.3K]

Answer:

Rise

Explanation:

A monopoly is defined as a market situation where only one seller determines the supply and price of a product, because they are the only ones that produce it.

When forms make technological advancements, they are able to make processes cheaper. So there is more money saved that can be used to increase production.

In this scenario for every product manufactured there is a $40 saved. This excess cash can be put back into the production to increase the output and profit.

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3 years ago
Cheyenne Corp. uses the percentage of receivables method for recording bad debts expense. The accounts receivable balance is $17
katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

a. Bad Debt Expense 5100 Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 5100

Explanation:

The adjusting entry is shown below:

Bad debt expense $5,100

       To Allowance for doubtful debts $5,100

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation is shown below:

= Account receivable × estimated percentage - credit balance of allowance for doubtful debts

= $170,000 × 5% - $3,400

= $8,500 - $3,400

= $5,100

In order to recording this transaction, we debited the bad debt expense as it increases the expenses account whereas at the same time it reduces the account receivable therefore the allowance for doubtful debts is credited

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