Answer:
when the velocity of money is high, it means each dollar is moving fast to purchase goods and services. It reflects high demand,which generates more production. When the velocity is low, each dollar is not being used very often to buy things.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": intentional infliction of emotional distress.
Explanation:
Intentional infliction of emotional distress or IIED is a common law applied when an individual causes emotional distress to another person intentionally by behaving inappropriately. Intentional infliction of emotional distress is usually accompanied by physical injuries.
One needs to create interactions between all of the following EXCEPT option B. high school and college. since, the model is using job tenure, it is the only option without work experience.
<h3>What is a 2nd Order Model for a regression model?</h3>
The polynomial regression model has one, two, or more than two predictor variables. Each predictor variable may be present in various powers. This polynomial model is called a second-order with one predictor variable because the single predictor variable is expressed in the model to the first and second powers.
Therefore, the only predictor variable in all other options is job experience. However, option C. does not have the dominating variable.
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The following are some turing questions and the responses to them:
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- What do you get if you cross a joke with a rhetorical question?
Response: I found this on the web for your query.
- The following sentence is true. The previous sentence is false. Is the previous sentence true
Response: I am confused. Would you please repeat?
- I wasn't originally going to get a brain transplant, but then I changed my mind. Is that funny? Why?
Response: It is indeed funny. I am out of my mind.
Answer: Ke = 8% = 0.08
ROE = 10% = 0.10
Expected EPS = $6
Plowback rate ( b) = 40% = 0.40
Dividend per share (D) = 60%x $6 = $3.60
Po = D(1+g )/ke-g
Po = $3.6(1+0.04)/0.08-0.04
Po = $3.744/0.04
Po = $93.60
The current market price is $93.60
The price-earnings ratio = market price per share/Earnings per share
= $93.6/$6
= 15.6
The correct answer is C
Explanation: The price-earnings ratio is the ratio of market price per share to earnings per share. In this scenario, it is important to obtain the market price per share using the above formula. Thereafter, the market price per share is divided by the earnings per share. There is need to calculate the dividend per share based on the retention rate of 40%. since the retention rate is 40%, the dividend pay-out rate will be 60%. Thus, dividend is 60% of the expected earnings per share. The estimation of growth rate (g) is based on Gordon's growth model, which is g = r x b. r represents return on equity while b denotes the plowback(retention rate).