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sveta [45]
2 years ago
11

Bernice’s has $823,000 in sales. The profit margin is 4.2 percent and the firm has 7,500 shares of stock outstanding. The market

price per share is $16.50. What is the price-earnings ratio? Select one: a. 3.58 b. 3.98 c. 4.32 d. 3.51 e. 4.27
Business
1 answer:
Irina-Kira [14]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

a. 3.58

Explanation:

the price earning ratio is obtain with the following formula:

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

We are given with the market price, now we need to solve for the EPS

with sales and profit margin we solve for net income. then we divide by the shares outstanding to get the EPS

823,000 sales x 4.2 profit margin = 34.566‬ net income

now we solve for EPS Earning per share:

\frac{Income}{Shares}\\\frac{34,566}{7,500} = 4.6088‬

Now we can sovle for price-earnings ratio

\frac{Market \: Price}{EPS}

16.50/4.61 = 3,5791 = 3.58

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You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $276,000, has a three-year life, and has pr
kramer

Answer:

Techron I

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Techron II

-$144,981

Explanation:

Techron I

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($75,000)

Depreciation ($276,000 / 3)   <u>($92,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($167,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$35,070</u>

Profit after tax                           ($131,930)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$92,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$39,930)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($276,000) + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($276,000) + ($35,652) + ($31,832) + ($28,421) = ($371,905)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -371,905 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-3/12% = -$154,842

Techron II

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($48,000)

Depreciation ($480,000 / 5)   <u>($96,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($144,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$30,240</u>

Profit after tax                           ($113,760)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$96,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$17,746)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($480,000) + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($480,000) + ($15,845) + ($14,147) + ($12631) = ($522,623)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -522,623 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-5/12% = -$144,981

7 0
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uysha [10]

Answer: D. debit to Payroll Tax Expense of $26,950.

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We should note that the payroll tax expense will consist of the federal unemployment tax, the state unemployment tax and the FICA taxes. This will then be:

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= 26950

Therefore, the journal entry to record the monthly Payroll Tax Expense would include debit to Payroll Tax Expense of $26,950.

8 0
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