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Gala2k [10]
3 years ago
11

Purchasing power parity (PPP): a. almost never holds completely. b. is as commonly accepted as the law of demand. c. is a reason

why all economies have left the gold standard. d. represents the universality of exchange rate systems.
Business
1 answer:
Ahat [919]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": represents the universality of exchange rate systems.

Explanation:

Purchasing Power Parity or PPP compares different countries' currencies through a market's basket of goods approach. Two currencies are in PPP when a market basket of goods, taking into account the exchange rate is priced the same in both countries. PPP currency rates are considered more accurate than market-exchange rates.

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Tito Corporation had net income of $2,000,000 and paid dividends to common stockholders of $300,000 in 2017. The weighted averag
Sidana [21]

Answer:

a. 10 times

Explanation:

The computation of price-earnings ratio is shown below:-

Earning per share = Net income ÷ Weighted average shares outstanding

= $2,000,000 ÷ 400,000

= 5

Price earning per share = Market price per share ÷ Earning per share

= $50 ÷ 5

= 10 times

Therefore for computing the price earning per share we simply applied the above formula.

8 0
3 years ago
Price skimming works best for which type of product?
andreyandreev [35.5K]
It works best for NEW PRODUCTS as its main goal is to make money and get as much profit as possible when the pricing is highest.

Found from: Conjointly.com
3 0
2 years ago
an accountant is 40 years old and has an anticipated retirement age of 70 years old. the accountant plans to save $6,000 per yea
liq [111]

The accountant have upon retirement $336,509.63

What is the future value of an annuity?

The accumulated balance in the accountant's retirement account upon retirement is the future value of $6,000 invested for 3 years earning 4% annual rate of return using the future value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown  below:

FV=PMT*(1+t)^N-1/r

FV=accumulated balance after 30 years=unknown

PMT=annual investment=$6,000

r=rate of return=4%

N=number of annual investments in 30 years=30

FV=$6000*(1+4%)^30-1/4%

FV=$336,509.63

Find out more about future value on:brainly.com/question/20910838

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6 0
1 year ago
Mentor Graphics Corporation, a supplier of electronic design automation systems, just announced its second quarter results. Acco
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

1. Which of the excluded items represent ongoing costs of running the business and which are one-time "special" costs?

it depends on the company and the actual transactions, e.g. equity based compensation might be a one time special cost because it occurred only once and is doubtful that it happens again. But if the company regularly rewards its top managers with this type of compensation, then it is an ongoing cost. E.g. Tesla awarded a HHHHUUUUUUGGGGGGGEEEEEEE bonus to Elon Musk (worth hundreds of millions) but it was a one time event. While many companies use equity compensation on a regular basis.

Severance and related employee "rebalancing" costs generally take place when a company fires a lot of people because it is cutting down some division or product line. Hopefully, they should never happen, and if they do, it should be only a one time event.

Fees paid to consultants and interest expenses are ongoing costs that will probably occur in the future.

Losses related to the abandonment of excess facility space and a facility fire should be one time events. It would be really bad for them to keep happening (same as severance and rebalancing costs)

8 0
3 years ago
Prepare the journal entry to record depreciation expense at the end of year 1, assuming the following: (Do not round intermediat
vampirchik [111]
Try adding the first two numbers together then divide
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