Answer:
1. 
2. 
3. 
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3> The complete exercise is: "Brown rice costs $2 per pound, and beans cost $1.60 per pound. Lin has $10 to spend on these items to make a large meal of beans and rice for a potluck dinner. Let b be the number of pounds of beans Lin buys and r be the number of pounds of rice she buys when she spends all her money on this meal.</h3><h3>1. Write an equation relating the two variables.</h3><h3>2. Rearrange the equation so "b" is the independent variable.</h3><h3>3. Rearrange the equation so "r" is the independent variable."</h3><h3 />
1. According to the information exercise given in the exercise, the cost per pounds of brown rice is $2. Since "r" represents the number of pounds of rice Lin buys, the total cost of the brown rice she buys can be represented with this expression:

The beans cost $1.60 per pound. Since "b" represents the number of pounds of beans Lin buys, the total cost of beans she buys can be represented as:

Knowing that she spends $10, you can write the following equation:

2. In order to rearrange the equation so "b" is the independent variable, you need to solve for "r":

3. To rearrange the equation so "r" is the independent variable, you must solve for "b". You get:

Answer:
See the proof below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."
Solution to the problem
For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables
with the following distribution:
bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:
From the info given we know that
We need to proof that
by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:


The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

And for the variance of Z we can do this:
![Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29_%20%3D%20E%28N%29%20Var%28X%29%20%2B%20Var%20%28N%29%20%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20)
![Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5Bp%281-p%29%5D%20%2B%20Mq%281-q%29%20p%5E2)
And if we take common factor
we got:
![Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28Z%29%20%3DMpq%20%5B%281-p%29%20%2B%20%281-q%29p%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-p%20%2Bp-pq%5D%3D%20Mpq%5B1-pq%5D)
And as we can see then we can conclude that 
Answer:
true
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A,C and D
in a 6(x + 7)-2
= (6x + 42)-2
c) 4f-2g
d) 3xyz-10
these three options I think
Hope it helps
The probability of all possible outcomes is always 1, meaning 100%.
In this case the probability of rolling a 1,2,3,4,5, or 6 is:
1/6+1/6+1/6+1/6+1/6+1/6
6(1/6)
6/6
1