Answer:
150
Step-by-step explanation:
15*10
Lets get rid of the 0 for now
15*1
That is 15 added to itself 0 times so it is 15
Now lets put the 0 back
and we will get
150
Answer:
I think the answer is C but I'm not too sure so if it doesn't sound right don't click it cuz I don't want you get the answer wrong
Your answer is B. 0.075 m
Answer: 0.9862
Step-by-step explanation:
Given : The probability that the chips belongs to Japan: P(J)= 0.36
The probability that the chips belongs to United States : P(U)= 1-0.36=0.64
The proportion of Japanese chips are defective : P(D|J)=0.017
The proportion of American chips are defective : P(D|U)=0.012
Using law of total probability , we have

Thus , the probability that chip is defective = 0.0138
Then , the probability that a chip is defect-free=