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joja [24]
3 years ago
6

Among the segmentation variables related to purchase behavior is consumers' share of wallet. This term refers to the Select one:

a. money that a consumer spends with one firm as a share of all the money that the consumer spends in that category O b. total amount of money that a consumer spends as a share of that consumer's yearly expenditures. O c. money that a consumer spends with one firm as a share of that consumer's discretionary income. O d. money that a consumer spends with a representative firm as a share of all the money spent by similar
Business
2 answers:
KATRIN_1 [288]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a. money that a consumer spends with one firm as a share of all the money that the consumer spends in that category.

Explanation:

A customer normally shares his spending among different retail outlets. The concept of customer wallet is a measure of spending on one particular brand compared to all spendings in a category.

This will help businesses know how much customers are pending with them in comparism with what they are spending on competitor's goods. Insights can be used to strategize on how to increase customer's share of wallet.

Flura [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": money that a consumer spends with one firm as a share of all the money that the consumer spends in that category.

Explanation:

Share of wallet refers to the money a consumer spends with the product or service of one company instead of using it with competitors. Some companies' marketing departments focus on retaining those consumers rather than acquiring new wit the purpose of promoting brand loyalty. Some firms even start offering complementary products targeted to their existing consumers.

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Slim made a single deposit of $5,000 in an account that pays 7.2% in 2015. What equal-sized annual withdrawals can Slim make fro
evablogger [386]

Answer:

annual withdrawals is  $1,393.87

Explanation:

given data

Amount Deposited = $5,000

Annual Interest Rate = 7.2%

First withdrawal =  2020

last withdrawal = 2025

solution

we consider equal sized annual withdrawals = x

so we can say that Amount Deposited amount will be as

$5,000 = \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^5} + \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^6} + \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^7} + \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^8} + \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^9} + \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^{10}}       ..........1

we take common here \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^{4}}

so

$5,000 = \frac{x}{(1+0.72)^{4}} \times ( \frac{1}{(1+0.72)^1} + \frac{1}{(1+0.72)^2} + \frac{1}{(1+0.72)^3} + \frac{1}{(1+0.72)^4} + \frac{1}{(1+0.72)^5} + \frac{1}{(1+0.72)^{6}} )      

solve it we get

x = $1,393.87  

so that annual withdrawals is  $1,393.87

7 0
3 years ago
The marginal utilities associated with the first 5 units of consumption of good Y are 15, 15, 10, 7, and 3, respectively. What i
julsineya [31]

Answer:

Total utility is 50

Explanation:

Mathematically;

TU = U1+MU2+MU3+MU4+MU5

TU = Total utility

U1= utility of 1st product of good Y

MU2= Marginal utility of 2nd product of good Y.............

MU5= Marginal utility of 5th product of good Y

Solution:

TUy= 15+15+10+7+3

TUy= 50.

6 0
4 years ago
g On January 2, 2019, Shank Co. issued at par $300,000 of 9% convertible bonds. Each $1,000 bond is convertible into 60 shares.
Softa [21]

Answer:

$1.89.

Explanation:

diluted earnings per share = earnings attributable to common stockholder ÷ weighted average number of common stock holders

                                            = $340,000 ÷ (100,000 + 18,000)

                                            = $1.89

Shank's diluted earnings per share for 2019 would be $1.89.

4 0
3 years ago
Chang Industries has 2,500 defective units of product that have already cost $14.50 each to produce. A salvage company will purc
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

$27,250

Explanation:

The computation of incremental income or loss on reworking the units is shown below:-

For computing the incremental income or loss on reworking the units first we need to follow some steps which is shown below:-

Incremental revenue per unit = Selling price after rework - Selling price as scrap

= $22.00 - $5.60

= $16.40

Total Incremental Revenue = Incremental revenue per unit × Total defective units

= $16.40 × 2,500

= $41,000

Total rework costs = Total defective units × Defects per unit

= 2,500 × $5.50

= $13,750

Now,

Incremental income or loss on reworking the units = Total Incremental Revenue - Total rework costs

= $41,000 - $13,750

= $27,250

7 0
3 years ago
S2→ S1→ S→ M→ D→ R→ C→ C1→C2
katovenus [111]

Answer:

sorry but I can't understand this question

6 0
3 years ago
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