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rjkz [21]
3 years ago
5

Michael owns a small plane that he flies on weekends. his insurance agent informs him that aircraft are excluded as personal pro

perty under his homeowner's policy. as an insured, he feels that his plane should be covered just like any other personal property he owns. explain the rationale for excluding certain types of property, such as aircraft, under the homeowner's policy.
Business
1 answer:
Dvinal [7]3 years ago
4 0

Certain types of property are generally excluded from homeowner's policies because there are not needed by the typical homeowner (most people don't own a plane) and including those risks in the policy would unfairly increase premiums for the pool of the rest of policy holders who do not own planes/need that protection. Also, there are other types of insurance that cover specific types of property such as cars, equipment, and air planes.  

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When the value of a bank's assets is than its liabilities, the bank is said to be:_____.
mr_godi [17]

The value of a bank's assets is than its liabilities, the bank is said to be  <u>solvent</u>

<h3>What is assets?</h3>

Any resource that a company, an organization, or an economic body owns or controls is considered an asset. It encompasses everything that has the potential to generate gains in the economy. When turned into money, assets indicate the worth of ownership.

<h3>What do you mean by solvent in accounting?</h3>

A company's capacity to fulfill its short-term and long-term financial commitments is known as its solvency. One indicator of a company's financial health is its level of solvency, which reveals whether it will be able to continue running its business into the near future. Ratio analysis is a tool investors can use to assess a company's solvency.

To know more about solvent in accounting visit:

brainly.com/question/17373453

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
QUESTION ONE (1)
Hunter-Best [27]
Y’all really be posting the whole passage on here, at this point y’all are just lazy to actually work it out
3 0
3 years ago
During March, Adams Company had sales of $5,000,000, variable expenses of $3,000,000, and fixed expenses of $1,500,000. Assume t
ad-work [718]

Answer:

Option (c) is correct.

Explanation:

Variable cost as a percent of sales:  

= (Variable expenses ÷ Sales) × 100

= ($3,000,000 ÷ $5,000,000) × 100  

= 60%

If Sales = X

then Variable cost is 0.6X (i.e. 60% of Sales)

Sales - Variable cost - fixed expenses = net operating income

X - 0.6X - 1,500,000 = 300,000

0.4X = 300000 + 1500000 = 1800000

X = 1800000 ÷ 0.4

  = 4,500,000

4 0
3 years ago
Net credit sales for the year are $750,000. The end of year accounts receivable balance is $160,000. The allowance for doubtful
alexandr402 [8]

Answer: $3000

Explanation: Allowance for doubtful accounts is the contra account to accounts receiveable when all the bad debts need to be accounted for. The bad debts reduces the accounts receivable line but all bad debts are actually deducted from the allowance for doubtful accounts.

The allowance for doubtful accounts for that year is calculated as 5% of the accounts receivable balance. This amounts to $8000 (160000 x 5%) before bad debts have been accounted for. Allowance for doubtful accounts moves in the opposite direction as accounts receivable because it is a contra account to this line item. At the end of the year before year end closing entries are done, and after the bad debts have been accounted for, the balance on the allowance for doubtful accounts is $5000.

This means that bad debts for that year is:

8000 (balance before bad debts have been accounted for)

- 5000 (balance after bad debts have been accounted for)

= $3000.

5 0
4 years ago
Three contractors (call them a, b, and
patriot [66]

Answer:  The probabilities of winning a contract are

P(A) = \frac{28}{36}  

P(B) = \frac{7}{36}  

P(C) = \frac{1}{36}


Let the Probability of C winning the contract - P(C) be 'X'

Then,

Probability of B winning the contract - P(B) will be '7X'     and

Probability of A winning the contract - P(A) will be \mathbf{P(A) = 4 * P(B) = 4*7X = 28X}

Since the total of all the probabilities is 1,

\mathbf{P(A) + P(B) + P(C) =1}

\mathbf{28X + 7X + X =1}

\mathbf{36X =1}

\mathbf{X =\frac{1}{36}}

So,

P(A) = \frac{28}{36}

P(B) = \frac{7}{36}

P(C) = \frac{1}{36}

4 0
3 years ago
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