Answer:
"at-will" simply means the employer can let you go without cause
Explanation:
At-will means that an employer can terminate an employee at any time for any reason, except an illegal one, or for no reason without incurring legal liability. Likewise, an employee is free to leave a job at any time for any or no reason with no adverse legal consequences.
Answer:
Preparation of the adjusting entries as of December 31, 2015.
Dr Salaries Expense 3,920
Cr Salaries Payable 3,920
Explanation:
Since we were been told in the question that all the 15 employees worked the first 2 days of that week, the Adjustment we therefore be $3,920( 1,960×2) . And the transaction will be recorded as:
Dr Salaries Expense 3,920
Cr Salaries Payable 3,920
The Adjustment will be :
1,960 x 2 = 3,920
Therefore the pay that occured in New Year's Day will not be used because it falls in the next year.
Answer:
bad debt expense 6,000 debit
allowance for uncollectible amounts 6,000 credit
Explanation:
expected allowance balance:
account receivable x expected uncollectible amount
200,000 x 4% = 8,000
currently the allowance balance is 2,000
so the amount of the adjustment will be to move the balance to 8,000 from 2,000: adjusting entry for 6,000
Answer:
the formula used to calculate the cost of equity (required rate of return) based on the bond yield plus risk premium is fairly simple:
cost of equity (Re) = yield of debt (bonds) + firm's risk premium = 11.52% + 3.55% = 15.07%
I'm not sure if the question was copied correctly or not, so I looked for similar questions and it included different numbers.
<em>The Harrison Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company's cost of internal equity. Harrison's bonds yield 10.28%, and the firm's analysts estimate that the firm's risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 4.95%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Harrison's cost of Internal equity is: = 10.28% + 4.95% = 15.23%</em>
<em>Another question: </em>
<em>The Kennedy Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company's cost of internal equity. Kennedy's bonds yield 11.52%, and the firm's analysts estimate that the firm's risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 4.95%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Kennedy's cost of internal equity is: = 11.52% + 4.95% = 16.47%</em>
Answer:
The payment serves as a fee for the service rendered by government. It is slightly different from a transaction-based tax due to the fact that a private party and the jurisdiction are involved in a transaction instead of the normal operation in a market transaction that occurs between two or more private parties. This also gives the payer a certain opportunity which is the right to get married under law.
Explanation:
The payment serves as a fee for the service rendered by the government. It is slightly different from a transaction-based tax due to the fact that a private party and the jurisdiction are involved in a transaction instead of the normal operation in a market transaction that occurs between two or more private parties. This also gives the payer a certain opportunity which is the right to get married under the law.
