Below are the differences between Bentham’s and Mill’s respective versions of utilitarianism:
1. The qualitative distinction
Bentham pots concede to any distinction in propensities yet
Mill arranged human inclinations and by ethical news of subjective contrast
called some honorable and another base. Along these lines, it is said that
scholarly propensities are far better than physiological inclinations.
2. Qualitative distinction in pleasures:
Similarly, Mill made subjective refinements in various joys. As indicated
by Bentham, all delights are comparable. In the event that the amount of joy is
the same, at that point, there is no distinction amongst verse and pushpin. As
opposed to this, as indicated by Mill, 'It is ideal to be a person disappointed
than a pig fulfilled, better to be a Socrates disappointed than a trick
fulfilled.
Answer:
Because of Trade and Technology
Explanation:
You have no power politically if you have no influence. It's like trying to keep the law without the police. America created the first submarines, iron-clad ships, and had a powerful navy before but they had to take it apart since they ran out of money. They were very powerful in the 20th century and became a world super power because of trade with the Allies in the first world war. Using the money, they improved the military and technology. That is why the USA has so much influence.
They were both autocratic ruled by emperors who wielded absolute power.
Both were underdeveloped industrially compared to major western powers, with agrarian based economies at the beginning of the 20th century.
Both had dynasties that had ruled their respective empires since the 17th century. <span />
