<span>No.
To check this yourself, you need the denominators to be the same to be able to easily compare the two.
For example, does 5/8 = 40/64?
1. Determine what you would need to do to the denominator in 5/8 to make it 64. (Multiply it by 8)
2. Find what fraction is equal to 1 with a denominator of 8. (8/8)
3. Multiply the fraction 5/8 by the one you just found (8/8), numerator times numerator, denominator times denominator.
4. Compare the answer with the second fraction.
It is important that when you multiply the denominator by any number you multiply the numerator by the same number. This is to preserve the fraction's value. This works because any number divided by itself is equal to 1, AND when you multiply any number by 1 (whether 1 is in the form of 1 or 4/4 or 8/8 or 234/234), the answer is always equal to the original number.
Another way to check would be to simply enter 1/2 into a calculator, write down the answer. Next enter 5/8 into a calculator. If the answers are the same, they are equal.</span><span>
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Answer:
It is 9
Step-by-step explanation:
If the top and the bottom are the same, (shown in the larger model), then the top and bottom in the smaller model should be the same, which gives me 9.
Good luck!
The range is all real number greater than - 1
To find the markup, substract the price at which the car was bought from the price at which the car was sold:
To find the markup as a percentage from the original price, set 20,480 to be equal to 100%. If <em>x%</em> represents 6328, then:
To the nearest tenth, 30.898... = 30.9.
Therefore, the markup is equal to 30.9%.
No it is not. It is a fraction
