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Alex777 [14]
3 years ago
8

Is the yield to maturity on a bond the same thing as the required return? Is YTM the same thing as the coupon rate? Suppose toda

y a 10 percent coupon bond sells at par. Two years from now, the required return on the same bond is 8 percent. What is the coupon rate on the bond? What is the YTM on the bond?
Business
1 answer:
kiruha [24]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Explanation:

The yield to maturity on a bond is the same thing as the required return. The YTM and the coupon rate is a totally different thing. The coupon rate is the interest which is computed on the principal amount whereas yield to maturity is a rate which is held at the maturity and its rate is also generated in maturity date.  

So, in the given case, the Coupon rate is 10% and the YTM is 8% as it reflects the maturity i.e two years from now

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What is the present value of a security that will pay $34,000 in 20 years if securities of equal risk pay 8% annually? Round you
OLga [1]

Answer:

present value = $7296.14

Explanation:

given data

future value =  $34,000

time t = 20 year

rate r = 8% = 0.08

solution

we apply here future value formula for get present value that is

future value = present value × (1+r)^{t}    .....................1

put her value and we get

$34,000 = present value ×  (1+0.08)^{20}

present value = \frac{34000}{1.08^{20}}

present value = \frac{34000}{4.660}

present value = $7296.14

4 0
3 years ago
Cameron Tiller is paid one and one-half times the regular hourly rate for all hours worked in excess of 40 hours per week and do
kozerog [31]

Answer:

His regular earnings ( based on regular rates) is $480 while his total earnings for the week ended March 15 is $738.

Explanation:

Regular rate = $12 per hour

Rate for hours in excess of 40 hours per week

= (3/2) × $12

= $18

Rate for hours for Sunday is double

= 2 × $12

= $24

During the week ended March 15, 9 hours each day from Monday through Friday, 6 hours on Saturday, and 4 hours on Sunday

Period in excess of 40 hours during the week

= (9 × 5) + 4 - 40

= 9

Total regular earning = 40 × $12

                                   = $480

Additional earnings = (9 × $18) + (4 × $24)

                                 = $162 + $96

                                 = $258

Total earnings = $480 + $258

                        = $738

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose the real risk-free rate is 3.50% and the future rate of inflation is expected to be constant at 2.20%. What rate of retu
muminat

Answer:

1.27%

Explanation:

Rate of return = [(1+real risk free rate)/(1+inflation rate)]-1

real risk free rate = 3.5%

inflation rate = 2.20%

Therefore Rate of return = [(1+ 3.5%)/(1+2.20%)]-1

=1.27%

5 0
3 years ago
1. An 80%-owned subsidiary sells merchandise to its parent at a markup of 25% on cost. During the current year, the parent paid
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

The unrealised profit (PURP) of $5,000 [ (125,000 * .20) * (.2) ]  should be subtracted from the profit share of Non-Controlling Interest.

Explanation:

When we prepare consolidated financial statements, we treat the companies of group as a single entity. That's why the intra-group transactions must be removed the consolidated statements. This involve adjustment of current accounts, unrealised profit on sale of goods/non-current asset, loan given by one group company to another etc.

When goods are sold by one group company to another at a markup and the buyer has not yet sold it to the third party, then the markup (profit) loading on these items is unrealised from group's point of view. This needs to be removed from the consolidated accounts because no one can make profit by trading with himself. This profit is termed as realised when the goods are sold to the third party. In the individual accounts, profit on this transaction has a credit balance so to remove it we debit the "cost of goods sold of group" and a credit entry to it is made to "inventory". This credit entry to inventory bring down the balance of inventory to what was the cost of that inventory to the group. Moreover, the recording of revenue by seller and inventory by buyer on intra-group sales and purchase is also adjusted.

After all the adjustments are made, the profit is distributed between parent's retained earnings and non-controlling interest. Now if the seller of goods is subsidiary, like in this case, the amount of unreaslised profit is deducted from NCI's profit share to calculate the profit attributable to parent's retained earnings.

7 0
3 years ago
At the close of its first year of operations, December 31, 2010, Ming Company had accounts receivable of $540,000, after deducti
masha68 [24]

Answer:

The company report on its balance sheet at December 31, 2010, as accounts receivable before the allowance for doubtful account is $590,000

Explanation:

The computation of the accounts receivable before the allowance is shown below:

= Beginning account receivable balance + bad debt expense -  uncollectible accounts receivable

= $540,000 + $90,000 - $40,000

= $590,000

The bad debt is an expense so it will be added whereas the account receivable which is not yet collected should be deducted in the computation part.  

4 0
3 years ago
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