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Anastaziya [24]
3 years ago
14

How is the modern era different from the postclassical era?

History
2 answers:
wolverine [178]3 years ago
8 0

The difference between the two eras is that: The Modern Age is the third of the historical periods in which universal history is conventionally divided, between the fifteenth and eighteenth centuries. Chronologically it harbors a period whose beginning can be fixed in the fall of Constantinople (1453) or in the discovery of America (1492), and whose end can be placed in the French Revolution (1789) or in the end of the previous decade, after the independence of the United States (1776). However, the Postclassic period begins around the year 800 and ends in 1521, when the Spaniards took the capital of the Aztec empire. The phenomenon that characterizes the Postclassic is the invasion of Mesoamerica by semi-nomadic peoples that came from the north, from the vast expanse of Aridoamerica. These people settled in Mesoamerica, mixed with ancient assimilating settlers many elements of classical cultures. With time, they would create a new civilization, comparable to the most advanced of the American continent.

maria [59]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

In the postclassical era, the world's most powerful states were in Asia and the Middle East. In the modern era, power shifted to Eurasia

Explanation:

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Explanation:

After  the second industrial revolution there were too many inventions like invention of the first revolver, sewing machine, battery, safety pin, steam powered locomotives. Steam locomotives by George Stephenson, changed the way of life which led to commercialization and emergence of huge factories. Transportation was made feasible during the late eighteenth century. Invention of Radio is considered to be the top most of all inventions. Although it was not invented by a single person but a group scientists have contributed for its discovery. In modern world, the invention of television is also revolutionary.

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Hi there, so what i know is:

as détente broke down, progress on nuclear arms control stalled completely. As their relationship continued to erode, it became clear that both the U.S. and the Soviet Union had overestimated the extent to which détente would contribute to an agreeable and peaceful end of the Cold War.

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I hope this helps! And remember to always give me feedback if I got it incorrect, I promise I will make up for my mistakes :-)

                                <em>      - Haley <3</em>

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