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inessss [21]
3 years ago
6

A private investment club has $300,000 earmarked for investment in stocks. To arrive at an acceptable overall level of risk, the

stocks that management is considering have been classified into three categories: high-risk, medium-risk, and low-risk. Management estimates that high-risk stocks will have a return rate of 15%; medium-risk stocks, 10%; and low-risk stocks, 6%. The members have decided that the investment in low-risk stocks should be equal to the sum of the investments in the stocks of the other two categories. Determine how much the club should invest in each type of stock if the investment goal is to have a return of $30,000 on the total investment. (Assume that all the money available for investment is invested. Let x, y, and z denote the amount, in dollars, invested in high-, medium-, and low-risk stocks, respectively.)
Business
1 answer:
Alexeev081 [22]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Investment in low risk=$150,000

Investment in medium risk =$30,000

Investment in high risk=$120,000

Explanation:

✓We can denote the investment in high risk as $x

✓ We can denote the investment medium risk as $y

✓We can denote the investment in low risk as($x + $y)

The summation of the investment = x + y +( x + y )= $300,000

If we add the like-terms together we have,

2x + 2y = $300,000

If we divide the both sides by 2, we have

x+y = 150,000

If we make "x" as subject of the formula, we have

x =150,000 -y •••••••••••eqn(**)

Total return on investments is

0.15x +0.10y +0 .06(x+y) = $30,000••••••••••••••••••••••••••••eqn(#)

Substitute for x from eqn(**) into equation (#)

0.15(150,000 -y) + 0.10y + 0.06(150,000-y +y) = 30,000

22500-0.15y+0.10y+9000= 30,000

0.05y=1500

y=1500/0.05

y=30,000

Recall, x =150,000 -y

Then

x = 150,000 - 30,000 = 120,000

y=30,000

x=120,000

Investment in low risk = x + y

= 30,000+120,000= 150,000

Hence, the investment in high risk

is $120,000, the investment medium risk is $30,000 and the investment in low risk is $ 150,000.

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Answer:

Explanation:

1).

Fixed overhead rate = Budgeted fixed overhead / Budgeted direct labor hours = $585,280 / 496000 = $1.18 per hour

Standard hour per unit = 496000 / 124000 = 4 hours per unit

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Budgeted fixed overhead = $585,280

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Fixed overhead spending variance = Budgeted fixed overhead - Actual fixed overhead

= $585,280 - $555,750 = $29,530 F

Fixed overhead volume variance = Fixed overhead applied - Budgeted fixed overhead

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2).

Standard rate of variable overhead = ($813,440 - $585,280) / 496000 = $0.46 per hour

Actual rate of variable overhead = $260,700 / 494000 = $0.5277327935 per hour

Variable overhead spending variance = (SR - AR) * AH = ($0.46 - $0.5277327935) * 494000 = $33,460 U

Variable overhead efficiency variance = (SH - AH) * SR = (477200 - 494000) * $0.46 = $7,728 U

4 0
3 years ago
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Consider a firm with a 2013 net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million, and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the bal
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

Weeks of supply = 4.16 weeks

Explanation:

given data

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revenue = $60 million

cost of goods sold = $25 million

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solution

we know here that Weeks of supply will be express as

Weeks of supply = \frac{average inventory}{cost of goods sold} × 52 weeks          ....................................1

so put here value we get weeks of supply

Weeks of supply =  \frac{2}{25} × 52 weeks

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Answer:

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Answer:

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Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

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To find the PV using a financial calculator:

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3. Press compute  

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