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bulgar [2K]
3 years ago
13

Please create ERDs for the following two examples and have them ready to upload. Please show cardinality for each one:

Business
1 answer:
dedylja [7]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

idk why is it so lonmg

Explanation:s

ssss

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A 6.75 percent coupon bond with 26 years left to maturity can be called in six years. The call premium is one year of coupon pay
kiruha [24]

Answer:

The yield to call  is 5.07%

Explanation:

The yield to call can be computed using the rate formula in excel,which is given as :=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of years to call which is 6 years

pmt is the annual interest coupon payable by the bond,which is :6.75%*$1000=$67.5

The pv is the current price at which the bond is offered to investors. i.e $1,135.25

fv is the price at the bond would be called in six years i.e par value+premium

par value is $1000

premium is $67.5

call price is $1067.5

=rate(6,67.5,-1135.25,1067.5)

rate=5.07%

8 0
3 years ago
TooEarly, Inc. is a calendar year corporation. On January 3rd of the current year at the request of TooEarly management, Grand S
denis23 [38]

Answer:

Next year

Explanation:

Since in the question, it is given that the only the corporate shareholder sells all of its shares to Bill Brady who is an individual and on the current year too early filed the S corporation status

Now the TooEarly will be eligible for the next year as the TooEarly has a non-qualified shareholder but the S corporation treatment is available for the following year

4 0
3 years ago
The Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) makes decisions regarding the___________.
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "D": buying and selling of securities (primarily Treasury bonds).

Explanation:

The Federal Open Market Committee or FOMC is a department of the Federal Reserve Board in charge of establishing monetary policy. There are different meetings within a year they held to determine to continue with the current policy or to change it. A change in monetary policy represents the purchase or sale of government securities (treasury bonds) on the open market to stimuli the economy.

3 0
3 years ago
Which is true? Root cause analysis is an important step in the incident management process. Until the root cause of incidents is
34kurt

Answer:

1. Root cause analysis is an important step in the incident management process.

2. Until the root cause of incidents is identified and eliminated, it is likely that the customer will continue to experience incidents.

Explanation:

The true and correct statement is that root cause analysis is an important step in the incident management process and until the root cause of incidents is identified and eliminated, it is likely that the customer will continue to experience incidents.

Root cause analysis can be defined as a technical process which is typically used to identify or measure the reason why incidents are occurring and how to device necessary procedures to mitigate and prevent the occurrence of such incidents in the future. Ultimately, if the root cause of an incident isn't identified and properly eliminated, it is very much likely that similar or perhaps the same incident would continue to occur.

<em>Hence, the first solution to solving a problem is identifying and eliminating the root cause. </em>

7 0
4 years ago
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of establishing a long-term partnership? Group of answer choices Improved innovation
BartSMP [9]

Answer: the correct option is D. Risk is eventually transferred to the other party

Explanation: A Partnership is a type of business arrangement in which two or more parties come into an agreement to engage in business together. These parties are known as partners.

Benefits of long-term partnerships include all the options in the question above except transferring risk to the other party, because the risk in partnerships cannot be transferred, risks are shared by all members of the partnership.

6 0
3 years ago
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